Jesus Christ is Almighty God

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ChristisGod

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According to the VOICE translation, which I like because it makes this explicit, the Eternal, Commander of heavenly armies, the LORD God almighty - not his Son.
John 12:41 declares it was the Son not the Father that Isaiah saw.

You should believe John 12:41 cf Isaiah 6:1-5 that it’s the Son. If not then you are in denial of the truth and your doctrine / bias is taking priority over scripture.

hope this helps !!!
 
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Wrangler

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John 12:41 declares it was the Son not the Father that Isaiah saw.

Resorting to lying now? Jesus is not even mentioned in the verse. The desperation is amazing.

Explicit is 1 Corinthians 11:3
But there is one thing I want you to know: The head of every man is Christ, the head of woman is man, and the head of Christ is God.

Who is the head of Christ? God, in his unitarian nature.
 

ChristisGod

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Resorting to lying now? Jesus is not even mentioned in the verse. The desperation is amazing.

Explicit is 1 Corinthians 11:3
But there is one thing I want you to know: The head of every man is Christ, the head of woman is man, and the head of Christ is God.

Who is the head of Christ? God, in his unitarian nature.
Try reading John 12:41 with comprehension instead of bias.
 

GracePeace

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“I am the Alpha and the Omega, the Beginning and the End,” says the Lord, “Who is and Who was and Who is to come, the Almighty.” (Revelation 1:8)

Here Jesus Christ is the Speaker, Who calls Himself “ὁ Παντοκράτωρ”, THE ALMIGHTY.

It is very clear from this chapter, and from others, that the Speaker here is the Lord Jesus Christ, and not as some suppose, God the Father.

In verse 1 we read, “The Revelation of Jesus Christ”, and in verse 2, “and to the testimony of Jesus Christ”. Then in verse 5, “and from Jesus Christ, the faithful witness, the firstborn from the dead, and the ruler over the kings of the earth To Him who loved us and washed us from our sins in His own blood”. Again, in verse 7 of the Lord Jesus, “ Behold, He is coming with clouds, and every eye will see Him, even they who pierced Him. And all the tribes of the earth will mourn because of Him. Even so, Amen”. Then we have the words in verse 8, “I am the Alpha and the Omega, the Beginning and the End,” says the Lord, “Who is and Who was and Who is to come, the Almighty”. Then in verse 9 we read, “and patience of Jesus Christ…and for the testimony of Jesus Christ”. Verse 10, “the Lord’s Day”. And 11, “saying, I am the Alpha and the Omega, the First and the Last, and, What you see, write in a book and send it to the seven churches which are in Asia: to Ephesus, to Smyrna, to Pergamos, to Thyatira, to Sardis, to Philadelphia, and to Laodicea.”. In the next chapter, in verse 8 Jesus is speaking, “‘These things says the First and the Last, who was dead, and came to life”. Again, in Revelation chapter 22, Jesus is the Speaker, “And behold, I am coming quickly, and My reward is with Me, to give to every one according to his work. I am the Alpha and the Omega, the Beginning and the End, the First and the Last.”.

There is no reason to take the words in verse 8, as spoken by God the Father. All of what we have read here, is about Jesus Christ, and spoken by Jesus Christ. It is only that some “theologically” cannot accept that Jesus Christ can be called “The Almighty”, who would have a problem with this passage as referred to Jesus as the Speaker. On the words, “the First and the Last”, it is interesting to note the remarks of Dr Thayer, in his Greek lexicon: “ὁ πρῶτος καί ὁ ἔσχατος, i. e. the eternal One, Rev 1:17; Rev 2:8; Rev 22:13”. Jesus Christ says of Himself, that He IS “The Eternal One”, how then can some say that Jesus was created at some time? As He IS “The Eternal One”, he must be Almighty God. Dr Thayer was a Unitarian, who denied Jesus Christ IS God. In Exodus 3:14 we read the Name that God gave to Moses, “I AM THAT I AM”. The Greek translation of the Old Testament (LXX), made some 100 years before Jesus Christ was born, have rendered the Hebrew as “Ἐγώ εἰμι ὁ ὤν”, that is, “I am The Eternal One”, which is what Jesus says of Himself in Revelation. In Isaiah 44:6 it says, “Thus says the LORD, the King of Israel and his Redeemer, the LORD of hosts: “I am the first and I am the last; besides me there is no god”. The Speaker here is Yahweh. Jesus Christ uses these same words for Himself.

In Isaiah 9:6, the Prophecy of the Lord Jesus Christ, one of the Names that He has, is “’êl Gibbôr”, which is correctly translated as “Mighty God”. Here too there are some who try to weaken this to “God-like Hero”. However, when the exact same Hebrew is used in chapter 10:21, for Yahweh, it is never translated as “God-like Hero”, but always as “Mighty God”. Why the difference? This is a theological block for some. Interestingly, that in 9:6, the Jewish Bible by Isaac Leeser, reads, “the mighty God”; and in the 2013 edition of the New World Translation, the Jehovah’s Witnesses translate the Hebrew, “Mighty God”. So the JW’s deny in their “theology”, that Jesus Christ is “God”, as they corrupt John 1:1 to read, “and the Word was a god”, yet here in Isaiah 9:6, they clearly call Jesus Christ, not just “God”, but, “Mighty God”. So it is clear that there are TWO, Who are equally called in the Old Testament, “’êl Gibbôr”. Surely this proves beyond any doubt, that a belief in the God of the Holy Bible, as being “UniPersonal”, is wrong.

Back to Revelation chapter 1, we go on to read from verses 12-16, a description of the Risen Lord Jesus Christ, Who here appears to the Apostle John. In verses 17-18, we have Jesus speaking, “Do not be afraid; I am the First and the Last. I am He who lives, and was dead, and behold, I am alive forevermore. Amen”.Again Jesus uses the words spoken by Yahweh in Isaiah, for Himself. Then He says, “I am He who lives”, which in the Greek is, “ο ζων”, which is in the present, continuance, literally, “The Ever-Living One”. As the LXX has in Exodus 3:14. Then Jesus continues, “and I am ever living for all the ages to the ages”.

In Revelation 5:12 we read about Jesus, “Worthy is the Lamb that was slaughtered to receive: the power, wealth, wisdom, might, honor, glory, and blessing.”. In the Greek we have the definite article “την”, before the word “δυναμιν” (power), and the following words taken together “και” (and), all in the accusative case. ALL THE Power, Wealth, Wisdom, Might, Honor, Glory, Blessing”, belong to Jesus Christ! Impossible for anyone who is a created being, and not Himself Almighty God. In fact, in the next two verses in this chapter, we read, “To Him who sits on the throne and to the Lamb be the blessing, the honor, the glory, and the power forever and ever.” And the four living creatures were saying, “Amen.” And the elders fell down and worshiped”. Notice that this to directed to, “Him Who sits on the throne AND (και) to the Lamb”. BOTH TOGETHER. In chapter 22, verse 1 it says, “And he showed me a river of water of life, bright as crystal, proceeding out of the throne of God and of the Lamb”. The Greek here is very interesting, “του θρονου του θεου και του αρνιου”. We have the article “του”, with “God” and “The Lamb”, showing that there are TWO “distinct” Persons. And, “θρονου” (throne), is in the singular, which means that THEIR Reign is JOINT. Showing complete equality. The same is in verse 3. In Revelation 11:15, we read: “The kingdom of the world is become [the kingdom] of our Lord, and of his Christ: and He shall reign for ever and ever”. “He shall Reign” is one word in the Greek, “βασιλευσει”, which is also in the singular, yet we have “Our Lord”, which is the Father, and “His Christ”, TWO. Clearly of Joint-Reign. The Father Who is Almighty God, will never jointly Reign with a lesser being.

No one who says that they believe that the Holy Bible is the Infallible, Inerrant, Word of God, can deny what the Bible actually says that Jesus Christ IS Almighty God, The Great I AM, Yahweh.
May I add that God was married to Israel under the Old Covenant... and Jesus is the "Husband" to the People of God in the New Covenant. There's no way Jesus isn't God.
 

ChristisGod

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It is you who has a remarkable bias, imposing your trinitarian doctrine onto unitarian text. Jesus Himself said he was going to his God in John 20:17. That means nothing to you?!
Context is John 12:41 and Isaiah 6:1-5. You are being evasive since what I have presented is irrefutable.

hope this helps !!!
 

Wrangler

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Context is John 12:41 and Isaiah 6:1-5. You are being evasive since what I have presented is irrefutable.

Wrong. I did refute your claims. You are again projecting. And are again denying Jesus Himself explicitly said he was going to his God in John 20:17.
 

Wrangler

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May I add that God was married to Israel under the Old Covenant... and Jesus is the "Husband" to the People of God in the New Covenant. There's no way Jesus isn't God.

The rationalizations mount. Specifically, rationalizing inferences over explicit text. Jesus, himself, send he knew less and was not as great as God, was sent by God, only says what God tells him to say, prayed to God, raised from the dead by God and after being resurrected, the 1st words out of his mouth were to announce he has not yet gone to his God. Instead of recognizing this means God and Jesus are 2 separate beings, you come up with this marriage inference.

How about this for an inference? The Bible says over and over and over again that God is the Father. Jesus is not called the Father. Therefore, Jesus is not God. The son of Joe Biden is not Joe Biden. The son of God is not God. Jesus God is the only God. There is no way Jesus is God.
 

Wrangler

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you guys just ignore any verse in the Bible that is against your heretical views!

The trinity is not in the Bible. You ignore the entirety of the unitarian Bible to project your trinitarian doctrine and talk AS IF there is a verse like this: The nature of God is a trinity - consisting of the Father, Son & HS - and if you do not believe this, you cannot be saved. But there is no such verse. The absence of the trinity from Scripture means nothing to trinitarians.
 

GracePeace

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The rationalizations mount. Specifically, rationalizing inferences over explicit text. Jesus, himself, send he knew less and was not as great as God, was sent by God, only says what God tells him to say, prayed to God, raised from the dead by God and after being resurrected, the 1st words out of his mouth were to announce he has not yet gone to his God. Instead of recognizing this means God and Jesus are 2 separate beings, you come up with this marriage inference.

How about this for an inference? The Bible says over and over and over again that God is the Father. Jesus is not called the Father. Therefore, Jesus is not God. The son of Joe Biden is not Joe Biden. The son of God is not God. Jesus God is the only God. There is no way Jesus is God.
You "wrangled" a bunch of irrelevant Scriptures, you didn't address the point I raised. God is married to His People in the OT Jeremiah 31:32; Jesus is the husband to God's People the Church His Bride.
 
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Wrangler

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You "wrangled" a bunch of irrelevant Scriptures, you didn't address the point I raised. God is married to His People in the OT Jeremiah 31:32; Jesus is the husband to God's People the Church His Bride.

Your point is pointless. 2 different grooms, 2 different brides. How profound is that?
 

ChristisGod

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Wrong. I did refute your claims. You are again projecting. And are again denying Jesus Himself explicitly said he was going to his God in John 20:17.
I notice you refuse to deal with the text which speaks volumes about your inability to refute me. Here it is again. I will even color code it for clarity.


John 12:41
These things Isaiah said, because he saw His glory, and he spoke of Him

Isa 6:1-5
In the year of King, Uzziah's death, I saw the Lord sitting on a throne, lofty and exalted, with the train of His robe filling the temple. 2 Seraphim stood above Him, each having six wings; with two he covered his face, and with two he covered his feet, and with two he flew. 3 And one called out to another and said,
"Holy, Holy, Holy, is the Lord of hosts,,
The whole earth is full of His glory."
4 And the foundations of the thresholds trembled at the voice of him who called out, while the temple was filling with smoke. 5 Then I said,
5"Woe is me, for I am ruined!,
Because I am a man of unclean lips,
And I live among a people of unclean lips;,
For my eyes have seen the King, the Lord of hosts."

The verb Isaiah used for "saw" in 6;1 is רָאָה ("ra'ah"). In the qal, it refers to the act of seeing in the literal sense, to see with the eyes (as opposed to, for example, מַחֲזֶה "machazeh", which is the act or event of an ecstatic "vision"). In referring to this event, John uses the Greek word εἶδον ("eidon") - also a verb referring to the act of seeing with the eyes in the natural sense.

We know that God the Father is invisible, "whom no man hath seen, nor can see" (1 Tim 6:16). He is transcendent and lives in unapproachable light (1 Tim 6:16). But the Son is "the image of the invisible God" (Col 1:15). Thus the one whom Isaiah "saw" in the literal sense with his eyes is the one whom he explicitly identified as "YHWH" - the same one whose glory he saw according to John (Jn 12:41). Jesus himself makes this clear at v.45 "And he that seeth me seeth him that sent me."

There is only ONE time when Isaiah saw someone he, speaking by the Holy Spirit identified as "YHWH", and John's spirit-inspired narrative of the interactions of Jesus with the Jews in the 11th and 12th chapter of his gospel, including their rejection of Christ, says that what Isaiah saw was HIS (ie Jesus') glory. This works in perfect harmony with John's whole purpose, given the FACT that John had previously identified the one who became flesh and dwelt among us (Jn 1:14) as "God" (Jn 1:1). Nowhere in the context of this narrative (ie Ch 12) does John speak of Christ's "glorification" in his rejection and crucifixion. To claim that this is what John was talking about in referring to what Isaiah SAW with his eyes ignores the grammar and the immediate context, including the clear and unmistakable words of Christ himself in that very context.

PS- When you deal with this text I will deal with any text of your choice in both testament's and PROVE His Deity.

hope this helps !!!
 

GracePeace

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Your point is pointless. 2 different grooms, 2 different brides. How profound is that?
1. My aim isn't profundity. I don't care how deep or shallow my point seems or actually is--just that it's true.
2. "These things happened to them but were written for our instruction" 1 Corinthians 10 : God taught us in the OT that one of the ways He relates to His People is as a Husband to His bride. How is Jesus NOT God but Husband to God's People? We are God's People. Jesus relates to us as a Husband. How is He NOT God?
 
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Wrangler

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I notice you refuse to deal with the text which speaks volumes about your inability to refute me. Here it is again. I will even color code it for clarity.

Wrong. You asked you is being referred to in Isaiah. Just because you are pretending the verse supports your doctrine does not mean it does. You did not like the fact that I said the Eternal, not Jesus.
 

ChristisGod

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Wrong. You asked you is being referred to in Isaiah. Just because you are pretending the verse supports your doctrine does not mean it does. You did not like the fact that I said the Eternal, not Jesus.
And John 12:41 interprets Isaiah 6:1-5. Another failure on your part to address the text.

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