Jesus Christ is Almighty God

[ByGraceThroughFaith]

“I am the Alpha and the Omega, the Beginning and the End,” says the Lord, “Who is and Who was and Who is to come, the Almighty.” (Revelation 1:8)

Here Jesus Christ is the Speaker, Who calls Himself “ὁ Παντοκράτωρ”, THE ALMIGHTY.

It is very clear from this chapter, and from others, that the Speaker here is the Lord Jesus Christ, and not as some suppose, God the Father.

In verse 1 we read, “The Revelation of Jesus Christ”, and in verse 2, “and to the testimony of Jesus Christ”. Then in verse 5, “and from Jesus Christ, the faithful witness, the firstborn from the dead, and the ruler over the kings of the earth To Him who loved us and washed us from our sins in His own blood”. Again, in verse 7 of the Lord Jesus, “ Behold, He is coming with clouds, and every eye will see Him, even they who pierced Him. And all the tribes of the earth will mourn because of Him. Even so, Amen”. Then we have the words in verse 8, “I am the Alpha and the Omega, the Beginning and the End,” says the Lord, “Who is and Who was and Who is to come, the Almighty”. Then in verse 9 we read, “and patience of Jesus Christ…and for the testimony of Jesus Christ”. Verse 10, “the Lord’s Day”. And 11, “saying, I am the Alpha and the Omega, the First and the Last, and, What you see, write in a book and send it to the seven churches which are in Asia: to Ephesus, to Smyrna, to Pergamos, to Thyatira, to Sardis, to Philadelphia, and to Laodicea.”. In the next chapter, in verse 8 Jesus is speaking, “‘These things says the First and the Last, who was dead, and came to life”. Again, in Revelation chapter 22, Jesus is the Speaker, “And behold, I am coming quickly, and My reward is with Me, to give to every one according to his work. I am the Alpha and the Omega, the Beginning and the End, the First and the Last.”.

There is no reason to take the words in verse 8, as spoken by God the Father. All of what we have read here, is about Jesus Christ, and spoken by Jesus Christ. It is only that some “theologically” cannot accept that Jesus Christ can be called “The Almighty”, who would have a problem with this passage as referred to Jesus as the Speaker. On the words, “the First and the Last”, it is interesting to note the remarks of Dr Thayer, in his Greek lexicon: “ὁ πρῶτος καί ὁ ἔσχατος, i. e. the eternal One, Rev 1:17; Rev 2:8; Rev 22:13”. Jesus Christ says of Himself, that He IS “The Eternal One”, how then can some say that Jesus was created at some time? As He IS “The Eternal One”, he must be Almighty God. Dr Thayer was a Unitarian, who denied Jesus Christ IS God. In Exodus 3:14 we read the Name that God gave to Moses, “I AM THAT I AM”. The Greek translation of the Old Testament (LXX), made some 100 years before Jesus Christ was born, have rendered the Hebrew as “Ἐγώ εἰμι ὁ ὤν”, that is, “I am The Eternal One”, which is what Jesus says of Himself in Revelation. In Isaiah 44:6 it says, “Thus says the LORD, the King of Israel and his Redeemer, the LORD of hosts: “I am the first and I am the last; besides me there is no god”. The Speaker here is Yahweh. Jesus Christ uses these same words for Himself.

In Isaiah 9:6, the Prophecy of the Lord Jesus Christ, one of the Names that He has, is “’êl Gibbôr”, which is correctly translated as “Mighty God”. Here too there are some who try to weaken this to “God-like Hero”. However, when the exact same Hebrew is used in chapter 10:21, for Yahweh, it is never translated as “God-like Hero”, but always as “Mighty God”. Why the difference? This is a theological block for some. Interestingly, that in 9:6, the Jewish Bible by Isaac Leeser, reads, “the mighty God”; and in the 2013 edition of the New World Translation, the Jehovah’s Witnesses translate the Hebrew, “Mighty God”. So the JW’s deny in their “theology”, that Jesus Christ is “God”, as they corrupt John 1:1 to read, “and the Word was a god”, yet here in Isaiah 9:6, they clearly call Jesus Christ, not just “God”, but, “Mighty God”. So it is clear that there are TWO, Who are equally called in the Old Testament, “’êl Gibbôr”. Surely this proves beyond any doubt, that a belief in the God of the Holy Bible, as being “UniPersonal”, is wrong.

Back to Revelation chapter 1, we go on to read from verses 12-16, a description of the Risen Lord Jesus Christ, Who here appears to the Apostle John. In verses 17-18, we have Jesus speaking, “Do not be afraid; I am the First and the Last. I am He who lives, and was dead, and behold, I am alive forevermore. Amen”.Again Jesus uses the words spoken by Yahweh in Isaiah, for Himself. Then He says, “I am He who lives”, which in the Greek is, “ο ζων”, which is in the present, continuance, literally, “The Ever-Living One”. As the LXX has in Exodus 3:14. Then Jesus continues, “and I am ever living for all the ages to the ages”.

In Revelation 5:12 we read about Jesus, “Worthy is the Lamb that was slaughtered to receive: the power, wealth, wisdom, might, honor, glory, and blessing.”. In the Greek we have the definite article “την”, before the word “δυναμιν” (power), and the following words taken together “και” (and), all in the accusative case. ALL THE Power, Wealth, Wisdom, Might, Honor, Glory, Blessing”, belong to Jesus Christ! Impossible for anyone who is a created being, and not Himself Almighty God. In fact, in the next two verses in this chapter, we read, “To Him who sits on the throne and to the Lamb be the blessing, the honor, the glory, and the power forever and ever.” And the four living creatures were saying, “Amen.” And the elders fell down and worshiped”. Notice that this to directed to, “Him Who sits on the throne AND (και) to the Lamb”. BOTH TOGETHER. In chapter 22, verse 1 it says, “And he showed me a river of water of life, bright as crystal, proceeding out of the throne of God and of the Lamb”. The Greek here is very interesting, “του θρονου του θεου και του αρνιου”. We have the article “του”, with “God” and “The Lamb”, showing that there are TWO “distinct” Persons. And, “θρονου” (throne), is in the singular, which means that THEIR Reign is JOINT. Showing complete equality. The same is in verse 3. In Revelation 11:15, we read: “The kingdom of the world is become [the kingdom] of our Lord, and of his Christ: and He shall reign for ever and ever”. “He shall Reign” is one word in the Greek, “βασιλευσει”, which is also in the singular, yet we have “Our Lord”, which is the Father, and “His Christ”, TWO. Clearly of Joint-Reign. The Father Who is Almighty God, will never jointly Reign with a lesser being.

No one who says that they believe that the Holy Bible is the Infallible, Inerrant, Word of God, can deny what the Bible actually says that Jesus Christ IS Almighty God, The Great I AM, Yahweh.

 

[tigger 2]

part 1 - BGTF wrote: “ Behold, He is coming with clouds, and every eye will see Him, even they who pierced Him. And all the tribes of the earth will mourn because of Him. Even so, Amen”. Then we have the words in verse 8, “I am the Alpha and the Omega, the Beginning and the End,” says the Lord, “Who is and Who was and Who is to come, the Almighty”. Then in verse 9 we read, “and patience of Jesus Christ…and for the testimony of Jesus Christ”.
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I don't know (nor care) where you got this, but it is certainly very devious.

First, verse 9 (even in the KJV which I guess you are using) begins with "I John ...." so if you are going to claim verses 7 - 9 are spoken by the same person, you are saying John spoke them all. Removing "John" from the quote of Rev. 1:9 is dishonest.

"Almighty" is a term given only to God. So verse 8 is spoken by Almighty God as nearly all texts and Bibles say ("Lord God"). So "Alpha and Omega" is used for God, not Jesus.

I assume you are using KJV because it doesn't use quotation marks which most Bibles use. Most trinitarian-translated Bibles use them and it helps immensely, since the Bible writers tended to run one persons speech into that of another speaker.

 

[Wrangler]

“I am the Alpha and the Omega, the Beginning and the End,”

Says Isaiah. Does that make him God also?

 

[ByGraceThroughFaith]

Says Isaiah. Does that make him God also?

Isaiah does not say that it is spoken by Almighty God

 

[tigger 2]

Part 2 - BGTF wrote - Again, in Revelation chapter 22, Jesus is the Speaker, “And behold, I am coming quickly, and My reward is with Me, to give to every one according to his work. I am the Alpha and the Omega, the Beginning and the End, the First and the Last.”.
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Jesus is not the only speaker in Chapter 22. Quotation marks and indenting tell us when there is a new speaker in most trinitarian Bibles here.

John is identified as the speaker in 22:8. The angel speaks in v. 9). The angel apparently continues speaking in v. 10). The angel may be still speaking in v.11) --- or it could be John or even someone else (as implied in verse 10 in the NAB,1970 ed.).

Now is the angel still speaking in v. 12) or is it God, or is it Jesus, or even John? There is simply no way of telling who the speaker is from any of the early Bible manuscripts. It’s entirely a matter of translator’s choice. Some translators have decided it is the angel who continues to speak, and they punctuate it accordingly. So the JB, and NJB use quotation marks to show that these are all words spoken by the angel.

However, the RSV, NRSV, NASB, NEB, REB, NKJV, NAB (1991 ed.), ESV, ISV, NLT, 21st Century King James Version, Third Millenium Bible, and TEV show by their use of quotation marks that someone else is now speaking in verse 12. Most Bibles indicate that the person who spoke verse 12 (whether God, angel, Jesus, or John) also spoke verse 13 (“I am Alpha and Omega...”).

Now the big question is: Is it clear that the speaker(s) of verses 12 and 13 continues to speak? Some Bibles indicate this. But other respected trinitarian translations do not!

The RSV, NRSV, NASB, NEB, REB, NKJV, NAB (1991 ed.), ESV, ISV, NLT, 21st Century King James Version, Third Millennium Bible, and TEV show (by quotation marks and indenting) that Rev. 22:14 and 15 are not the words of the speaker of verses 12 and 13 but are John’s words.

(The Jerusalem Bible and the NJB show us that the angel spoke all the words from verse 10 through verse 15.) Then they show Jesus as a new speaker beginning to speak in verse 16.

So, if you insist that the person speaking just before verse 16 is the same person who is speaking in verse 16, then, according to the trinitarian RSV, NRSV, NASB, NEB, REB, NKJV, NAB (1991 ed.), ESV, ISV, NLT, 21st Century King James Version, Third Millennium Bible, and TEV, you are saying John is Jesus!!! (According to the JB and NJB you would be insisting that the angel is Jesus!)

And, just as the use of “I, John” indicated a new speaker in Revelation (1:9 and 22:8), so does the only other such usage in that same book. Yes, Rev. 22:16 - “I, Jesus” also introduces a new speaker. This means, of course, that the previous statement (“I am the Alpha and Omega”) was made by someone else!

Even the KJV translators have shown by their use of the word “his” in verse 14 that they didn’t mean that Jesus was the same speaker as the Alpha and Omega. The speaker of verse 13 is Almighty God. The comment in verse 14 of these Bibles (as literally translated from the Received Text) explains the importance of doing “His Commandments” (not “My Commandments”)! Therefore the speaker of verse 14 is obviously not God as clearly stated by those Bibles which were translated from the Received Text, e.g., KJV; NKJV; KJIIV; MKJV; Young’s Literal Translation; Webster Bible (by Noah Webster); and Revised Webster Bible. Lamsa’s translation (Holy Bible From the Ancient Eastern Text) also uses “him.“

So we can easily see that there is no reason to say Jesus spoke the words recorded at Rev. 22:13 (or the above-named trinitarian Bibles would surely have so translated it!) and, in fact, the context really identifies the speaker as being the same person who spoke at Rev. 1:8, God Almighty, Jehovah, the Father.

 

[GISMYS_7]

Part 2 - BGTF wrote - Again, in Revelation chapter 22, Jesus is the Speaker, “And behold, I am coming quickly, and My reward is with Me, to give to every one according to his work. I am the Alpha and the Omega, the Beginning and the End, the First and the Last.”.
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Jesus is not the only speaker in Chapter 22. Quotation marks and indenting tell us when there is a new speaker in most trinitarian Bibles here.

John is identified as the speaker in 22:8. The angel speaks in 9). The angel apparently continues speaking in 10). The angel may be still speaking in 11) --- or it could be John or even someone else (as implied in verse 10 in the NAB,1970 ed.).

Now is the angel still speaking in 12) or is it God, or is it Jesus, or even John? There is simply no way of telling who the speaker is from any of the early Bible manuscripts. It’s entirely a matter of translator’s choice. Some translators have decided it is the angel who continues to speak, and they punctuate it accordingly. So the JB, and NJB use quotation marks to show that these are all words spoken by the angel.

However, the RSV, NRSV, NASB, NEB, REB, NKJV, NAB (1991 ed.), ESV, ISV, NLT, 21st Century King James Version, Third Millenium Bible, and TEV show by their use of quotation marks that someone else is now speaking in verse 12. Most Bibles indicate that the person who spoke verse 12 (whether God, angel, Jesus, or John) also spoke verse 13 (“I am Alpha and Omega...”).

Now the big question is: Is it clear that the speaker(s) of verses 12 and 13 continues to speak? Some Bibles indicate this. But other respected trinitarian translations do not!

The RSV, NRSV, NASB, NEB, REB, NKJV, NAB (1991 ed.), ESV, ISV, NLT, 21st Century King James Version, Third Millennium Bible, and TEV show (by quotation marks and indenting) that Rev. 22:14 and 15 are not the words of the speaker of verses 12 and 13 but are John’s words.

(The Jerusalem Bible and the NJB show us that the angel spoke all the words from verse 10 through verse 15.) Then they show Jesus as a new speaker beginning to speak in verse 16.

So, if you insist that the person speaking just before verse 16 is the same person who is speaking in verse 16, then, according to the trinitarian RSV, NRSV, NASB, NEB, REB, NKJV, NAB (1991 ed.), ESV, ISV, NLT, 21st Century King James Version, Third Millennium Bible, and TEV, you are saying John is Jesus!!! (According to the JB and NJB you would be insisting that the angel is Jesus!)

And, just as the use of “I, John” indicated a new speaker in Revelation (1:8 and 22:8), so does the only other such usage in that same book. Yes, Rev. 22:16 - “I, Jesus” also introduces a new speaker. This means, of course, that the previous statement (“I am the Alpha and Omega”) was made by someone else!

Even the KJV translators have shown by their use of the word “his” in verse 14 that they didn’t mean that Jesus was the same speaker as the Alpha and Omega. The speaker of verse 13 is Almighty God. The comment in verse 14 of these Bibles (as literally translated from the Received Text) explains the importance of doing “His Commandments” (not “My Commandments”)! Therefore the speaker of verse 14 is obviously not God as clearly stated by those Bibles which were translated from the Received Text, e.g., KJV; NKJV; KJIIV; MKJV; Young’s Literal Translation; Webster Bible (by Noah Webster); and Revised Webster Bible. Lamsa’s translation (Holy Bible From the Ancient Eastern Text) also uses “him.“

So we can easily see that there is no reason to say Jesus spoke the words recorded at Rev. 22:13 (or the above-named trinitarian Bibles would surely have so translated it!) and, in fact, the context really identifies the speaker as being the same person who spoke at Rev. 1:8, God Almighty, Jehovah, the Father.

The one true Almighty God is God the Father,Son and Holy Spirit=the one true Almighty God.

 

[tigger 2]

Part 3 - BGTF wrote - the New World Translation, the Jehovah’s Witnesses translate the Hebrew, “Mighty God”. So the JW’s deny in their “theology”, that Jesus Christ is “God”, as they corrupt John 1:1 to read, “and the Word was a god”, yet here in Isaiah 9:6, they clearly call Jesus Christ, not just “God”, but, “Mighty God”.
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As most understand names in the Bible, the individual nouns in a multiple-word name are Capitalized! So the NWT capitalizes the nouns in Is. 9:6, but still considers that they can be understood to be uncapitalized in English. So 'god' is an honest understanding of the word in Is. 9:6 and does not contradict "a god" at John 1:1.

 

[tigger 2]

Part 4 - BGTF wrote -
Back to Revelation chapter 1, we go on to read from verses 12-16, a description of the Risen Lord Jesus Christ, Who here appears to the Apostle John. In verses 17-18, we have Jesus speaking, “Do not be afraid; I am the First and the Last. I am He who lives, and was dead, and behold, I am alive forevermore. Amen”.Again Jesus uses the words spoken by Yahweh in Isaiah, for Himself. Then He says, “I am He who lives”, which in the Greek is, “ο ζων”, which is in the present, continuance, literally, “The Ever-Living One”. As the LXX has in Exodus 3:14. Then Jesus continues, “and I am ever living for all the ages to the ages”.
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Alpha and Omega is a distinctive title for God. First and Last is a description meaning "the only one (in some sense). For example one who was the only one to be resurrected from the dead to eternal life by God.

The LXX (Septuagint) says at Ex 3:14 "Ho On" (ὁ ὤν,The Being) not ho Zon.

 

[tigger 2]

Part 5 - BGTF wrote - yet here in Isaiah 9:6, they clearly call Jesus Christ, not just “God”, but, “Mighty God

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Is. 9:6 speaks of a NAME, not an identity. Many, if not most, OT names which consist of multiple nouns are statements concerning or praising God.

For example, Strong’s Exhaustive Concordance says the name “Elimelech” (which is literally just “God King”) means “God of (the) King.” Young’s Analytical Concordance says it means “God is King.” Today’s Dictionary of the Bible says it means “ God his king” - p. 206, Bethany House Publ., 1982.

Therefore, the personal name at Is. 9:6 has been honestly translated in the footnote as:

“And his name is called: Wonderful in counsel IS God the Mighty, the Everlasting Father, the Ruler of Peace” - The Holy Scriptures, JPS Version (Margolis, ed.)

to show that it is intended to praise the God of the Messiah who performs great things through the Messiah.

Also, An American Translation (by trinitarians Smith & Goodspeed) says:

“Wonderful Counselor IS God Almighty, Father forever, Prince of Peace.”

From the Is. 9:6 footnote in the trinity-supporting NET Bible:

".... some have suggested that one to three of the titles that follow ['called'] refer to God, not the king. For example, the traditional punctuation of the Hebrew text suggests the translation, 'and the Extraordinary Strategist, the Mighty God calls his name, "Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace."'"

And The Leeser Bible has:

“Wonderful, counsellor of the mighty God, of the everlasting Father, the prince of peace”

Of course it could also be honestly translated:

“The Wonderful Counselor and Mighty God Is the Everlasting Father of the Prince of Peace.”

And the Tanakh by the JPS, 1985, translates it:

(a) “The Mighty God is planning grace;

(b) The Eternal Father [is] a peaceable ruler.”

This latter translation seems particularly appropriate since it is in the form of a parallelism. Not only was the previous symbolic personal name introduced by Isaiah at Is. 8:1 a parallelism (“Maher-Shalal-Hash-Baz” means (a)“quick to the plunder; (b) swift to the spoil” - NIV footnote) but the very introduction to this Messianic name at Is. 9:6 is itself a parallelism: (a) “For unto us a child is born; (b) unto us a son is given.” It would, therefore, be appropriate to find that this name, too, was in the form of a parallelism as translated by the Tanakh above.

So it is clear, even to a number of trinitarian scholars, that Is. 9:6 does not imply that Jesus is Jehovah God.

 

[tigger 2]

Part 6 - BGTF wrote - In Exodus 3:14 we read the Name that God gave to Moses, “I AM THAT I AM”.

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In Ex. 3:14 ehyeh is rendered as "I Will Be."

The two main points to be made about Exodus 3:14 in the original Hebrew are: (1) the word sometimes translated “I AM” in English is not the name of God but merely an explanation of the meaning of his only personal name (“Jehovah” - English form; “Yahweh” - possible Hebrew form), and (2) translating that Hebrew word (ehyeh) as “I Am” is probably incorrect.

You can see the truth of point #1 by carefully examining Ex. 3:13-15. Especially when you see a translation that honestly translates God’s name in Ex. 3:15 as “Yahweh” or “Jehovah” (not “LORD”). Notice where God used the word “name” in Ex. 3:15 and what it refers to. (Compare Ps. 83:16, 18 - “fill their faces with shame; that they may seek thy name, O LORD [mistranslation of “Jehovah” - see ASV] .... That men may know that thou, whose name alone is JEHOVAH, art the most high over all the earth.” - King James Version.)

“Nevertheless, Exod. 3 does not appear to give a new name for the first time but the explanation of a name known already but now identified as the saving God of Israel....” - The New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology, p. 69, Vol. 2, Zondervan, 1986.

In its commentary to Exodus 3:14, the JPS Tanakh, Jewish Study Bible, Oxford Edition states:

"God's proper name disclosed in the next verse is YHVH (spelled yod-heh-vav-heh. In Heb., in ancient times, the "vav" was pronounced "w"). But here God first tells Moses its meaning; ehyeh-asher-ehyeh, probably best translated as "I will be what I will be" meaning: "My nature will become evident from my actions."

Although it takes some effort to further check out the meaning of ehyeh, it is worth it. With a good Hebrew-English Interlinear Bible you can prove to yourself that ehyeh should be translated “I will be” (or a similar rendering) at Ex. 3:14.

In contrast to the paucity of evidence for an “I am” interpretation of ehyeh you will find that all of the books of Moses (the Pentateuch), including Exodus, of course, and the book of Joshua always use ehyeh to mean “I will be.”

 

[tigger 2]

part 7 - BGTF wrote - worship God and the Lamb

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The Greek word proskuneo (or proskyneo) is defined in the 1971 trinitarian United Bible Societies’ A Concise Greek-English Dictionary of the New Testament, p. 154: “[Proskuneo] worship; fall down and worship, kneel, bow low, fall at another’s feet.”

Even the trinitarian W. E. Vine writes in his An Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words, p. 1247:

“PROSKUNEO ... to make obeisance, do reverence to (from pros, towards, and kuneo, to kiss), is the most frequent word rendered ‘to worship’. It is used for an act of homage or reverence (a) to God ...; (b) to Christ ...; (c) to a man, Matt. 18:26.”

“Obeisance,” of course, shows “respect, submission, or reverence” - Webster’s New Collegiate Dictionary, 1961.

Noted Bible scholar J. H. Thayer defines proskuneo:

“prop. to kiss the hand to (towards) one, in token of reverence ... hence in the N. T. by kneeling or prostration to do homage (to one) or make obeisance, whether in order to express respect or to make supplication. It is used a. of homage shown to men of superior rank [position] ... Rev. 3:9 .... b. of homage rendered to God and the ascended Christ, to heavenly beings [angels]” - p. 548, Thayer’s Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament, Baker Book House Publ., 1977.

Hasting’s A Dictionary of the Bible tells us:

“Worship, both as [noun] and verb, was formerly used of reverence or honour done to men as well as to God …” - p. 941, vol. 4.

The Hebrew word most often translated “worship” is shachah, and it is usually rendered as proskuneo in the Greek Septuagint version of the Old Testament. Unger and White say of this word: “Shachah ... ‘to worship, prostrate oneself, bow down.’” And,

“The act of bowing down in homage done before a superior [in rank] or a ruler. Thus David ‘bowed’ himself [shachah] before Saul (1 Sam. 24:8). Sometimes it is a social or economic superior to whom one bows, as when Ruth ‘bowed’ [shachah] to the ground before Boaz (Ruth 2:10).” - Nelson’s Expository Dictionary of the Old Testament, 1980, Thomas Nelson Publ., p. 482.

So, notice this scripture:
1 Chron. 29:20 tells us, “And all the assembly blessed Jehovah, the God of their fathers, and bowed down their heads and worshiped [shachah] Jehovah and the king [David].” - ASV - cf. Septuagint (proskuneo).

 

[tigger 2]

Part 8 - BGTF wrote - No one who says that they believe that the Holy Bible is the Infallible, Inerrant, Word of God, can deny what the Bible actually says that Jesus Christ IS Almighty God, The Great I AM, Yahweh.

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"The Great I Am" is incorrect in several ways.

Even most trinitarian Bible translations deny any connection between God’s statement at Exodus 3:14 and Jesus’ reply to the Jews at John 8:58. They do this through the modern English usage of capitalizing personal names and exclusive titles. For example, “Word” at Jn 1:14; “Lamb” at Jn 1:36 and Rev 5:8; and “Son” at Jn 8:36.

Most of the trinitarian Bible translations that I have checked (24) have capitalized the words in question at Ex. 3:14 (“I AM;” or “I Will Be;” or “I Will Become;” etc.) to show their interpretation that this is a title or name of God. However, most of those same translations do not capitalize the words in question at John 8:58 (“I am;” “I was;” or “I have existed;” etc.): KJV; Douay Version; RSV; NRSV; ASV; NIV; NEB; REB; MLB; LB; NLV; The New Testament in the Language of the People (CBW); Young’s Literal Translation of the Holy Bible; Rotherham; Beck; and Byington.

Therefore, the vast majority of trinitarian-translated Bibles obviously show Ex. 3:14 as giving a title or name for God (as properly indicated by the use of capitalization in English), but they do not show the same understanding for John 8:58 (nor Isaiah’s uses of “I am” by God)! All those trinitarian scholars above, therefore, are saying (by not capitalizing “am”) at Jn 8:58 that Jesus did not claim the same name or exclusive title that God used in some translations at Ex. 3:14.

Even though Bible text compilers add the punctuation and capitalization that they personally prefer, the basic Greek texts as compiled by trinitarians Westcott and Hort, and the trinitarian United Bible Societies, the Nestle text, and even the Received Text by the Trinitarian Bible Society (1976) do not capitalize ego eimi at John 8:58 ! (As compared to the capitalized “Alpha and Omega” title at Rev. 1:8, for example.)

Cross-References in Trinitarian Reference Bibles

Some trinitarian editors and publishers of trinitarian Bibles have added cross-references to the original translations. That is, they have superscripts and notes which refer one scripture to one or more other scriptures. The reference may indicate an actual quote from the OT found in the NT. Or it can indicate a similar meaning, event, or even just similar wording found in other scriptures. For example, in the New American Standard Bible (NASB), Reference Edition, Foundation Press, 1975, the trinitarian NT editors chose John 1:1; 17:5, 24 as all their references for John 8:58. Not one reference to Ex. 3:14 or Isaiah or any other OT scripture where God says “I am”! Obviously these trinitarian scholars did not accept the extremely poor “I AM” evidence! (The trinitarian OT editors, however, did choose this approach at Ex. 3:14.)

And the very trinitarian Revised Standard Version, American Bible Society, 1971 ed. also has only Jn 1:1; 17:5, 24 as references for John 8:58! (In this case the trinitarian OT editors also did not refer Ex. 3:14 or verses in Isaiah, etc. to Jn 8:58!) These trinitarian scholars, therefore, did not accept the “I AM” argument as valid!

Other Translations

Some of those trinitarian translators go even further than merely not capitalizing at John 8:58 and further clarify the probable meaning in English and thereby refute the deceptive “I AM” interpretation of a few trinitarians.

These translations (most by trinitarians) render ego eimi at John 8:58 as:

(1) “I HAVE BEEN” - alternate reading in 1960 thru 1973 reference editions of NASB

(2) “I HAVE BEEN” - The New Testament, G. R. Noyes

(3) “I HAVE BEEN” - “The Four Gospels” According to the Sinaitic Palimpsest, A. S. Lewis

(4) “I HAVE ALREADY BEEN” - The Unvarnished New Testament

(5) “I HAVE EXISTED” - The Bible, A New Translation, Dr. James Moffatt

(6) “I EXISTED” - The New Testament in the Language of Today, 1964 ed., Beck

(7) “I EXISTED” - An American Translation, Goodspeed

(8) “I EXISTED” - The New Testament in the Language of the People, Williams

(9) “I EXISTED” - New Simplified Bible

(10) “I WAS IN EXISTENCE” - Living Bible

(11) “I WAS ALIVE” - The Simple English Bible

(12)“I WAS” - Young’s Literal Translation of the Holy Bible, 1st ed. (Also see Young’s Concise
Critical Commentary, p. 61 of “The New Covenant.”).

(13) “I WAS” - H. T. Anderson

(14) “I WAS” - Twentieth Century New Testament

(15) "I already was" - Worldwide English (New Testament) (WE)

(16) "I existed" - New Living Translation (NLT)

(17) "I WAS" - Holy Bible - From the Ancient eastern Text (Lamsa)

As for Exodus 3:14, see part 6 above.

 

[tigger 2]

Part 8 - BGTF wrote -
[the NWT] corrupts John 1:1 to read, “and the Word was a god”
................................................................
Here are all the parallel constructions in John's writing that are actually parallel to the construction of John 1:1c.

H.....1. John 4:9 (a) - indefinite ("a Jew") - all translations
H,W...2. John 4:19 - indefinite ("a prophet") - all
H,W...3. John 6:70 - indefinite ("a devil"/"a slanderer") - all
H,W...4. John 8:44 (a) - indefinite ("a mankiller/murderer") - al
H,W...5. John 8:48 - indefinite ("a Samaritan") - all
H,W...6. John 9:24 - indefinite ("a sinner") - all
H,W...7. John 10:1 - indefinite ("a thief and a plunderer") - all
H,W...8. John 10:33 - indefinite ("a man") - all
H,W...9. John 18:35 - indefinite ("a Jew") - all
H,W...10. John 18:37 (a) - indefinite ("a king") - all
[H,W..11. John 18:37 (b) - indefinite ("a king") - Received Text and 1991 Byzantine text]

These are all indefinite nouns (not definite, not "qualitative"). All trinitarian Bible translations I have examined render them as indefinite! We should have enough examples to satisfy the most critical (but honest) scholar now. (And I wouldn't strongly resist the use of the "no subject" examples above which clearly intend the subject as being a pronoun included with the verb, e.g., "[he] is," which would then bring our total of ALL proper examples to nearly 20.)

These would include:

H,W 12. Jn 8:44 (b) - indefinite (“a liar”) - all

H,W 13. Jn 9:8 (a) - indefinite (“a beggar”) - all

H,W 14. Jn 9:17 - indefinite (“a prophet”) - all

H,W 15. Jn 9:25 - indefinite (“a sinner”) - all

H,W 16. Jn 10:13 - indefinite (“a hireling/hired hand”) - all

H,W 17. Jn 12:6 - indefinite (“a thief”) - all

18. 1 Jn 4:20 - indefinite (“a liar”) - all

H: Also found in Harner's list of "Colwell Constructions"
W: Also found in Wallace's list of "Colwell Constructions"

Why, then, if John really meant that Jesus is the One True God, didn’t he use the definite article at John 1:1c ? Because, as he did with other terms sometimes used for Jesus (“prophet,” “king”), he intended for them to be taken as indefinite nouns (“a prophet,” “a king,” and “a god”) when the article was not used.

It should also be pointed out that 3 Kings 18:27 in the ancient Greek Septuagint translation of the Old Testament (1 Kings 18:27 in English Bibles) has a very similar construction to John 1:1c. It has theos as a predicate noun without a definite article and coming before the verb: “for God [or ‘a god’] he is.” But the Septuagint translation by Sir Lancelot Brenton (Zondervan Publishing) says “for he is a god.”!! Compare other translations of 1 Kings 18:27: “a god” is obviously intended here! This is a clear (and very significant) “violation” of “Colwell’s Rule”! - Cf. Judges 6:31 (and Ezek. 28:2 in many Bibles.)

 

[GISMYS_7]

The Supremacy of the Son of God
15 The Son is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation. 16 For ""in him all things were created"": things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things have been created through him and for him. 17 He is before all things, and in him all things hold together. 18 And he is the head of the body, the church; he is the beginning and the firstborn from among the dead, so that in everything he might have the supremacy. 19 For God was pleased to have all his fullness dwell in him,

 

[Wrangler]

Isaiah does not say that it is spoken by Almighty God

All prophets speak for God. Just because they speak God’s words does not make them God.

 

[ByGraceThroughFaith]

All prophets speak for God. Just because they speak God’s words does not make them God.

Isaiah 44:6 says "“Thus says the LORD, the King of Israel and his Redeemer, the LORD of hosts: “I am the first and I am the last; besides me there is no god”

Yahweh IS the Speaker NOT Isaiah! It does not say, "this is what Yahweh is saying"

 

[Wrangler]

Isaiah 44:6 says "“Thus says the LORD, the King of Israel and his Redeemer, the LORD of hosts: “I am the first and I am the last; besides me there is no god”

Yahweh IS the Speaker NOT Isaiah! It does not say, "this is what Yahweh is saying"

OMG! If you want to deny the prophet Isaiah said these words and wrote these words on Adonai's behalf, it would not surprise me. Point is, when Jesus said these words, just like when Isaiah said them, he was speaking for God - as all prophets do. You want to apply the words of God to a man of your choosing - to fit your doctrine.

 

[ByGraceThroughFaith]

OMG! If you want to deny the prophet Isaiah said these words and wrote these words on Adonai's behalf, it would not surprise me. Point is, when Jesus said these words, just like when Isaiah said them, he was speaking for God - as all prophets do. You want to apply the words of God to a man of your choosing - to fit your doctrine.

you do talk a load of TWADDLE!!!

 

[ChristisGod]

OMG! If you want to deny the prophet Isaiah said these words and wrote these words on Adonai's behalf, it would not surprise me. Point is, when Jesus said these words, just like when Isaiah said them, he was speaking for God - as all prophets do. You want to apply the words of God to a man of your choosing - to fit your doctrine.

Who is Isaiah describing in Isaiah 6:1-5 ?

 

[kcnalp]

Revelation 1:8 (NKJV)
8 "I am the Alpha and the Omega, the Beginning and the End," says the Lord, "who is and who was and who is to come, the Almighty."
Revelation 1:17-18 (NKJV)
17 And when I saw Him, I fell at His feet as dead. But He laid His right hand on me, saying to me, "Do not be afraid; I am the First and the Last.
18 I am He who lives, and was dead, and behold, I am alive forevermore. Amen. And I have the keys of Hades and of Death.
Revelation 2:8 (NKJV)
8 "And to the angel of the church in Smyrna write, 'These things says the First and the Last, who was dead, and came to life:
Revelation 2:18-23 (NKJV)
18 "And to the angel of the church in Thyatira write, 'These things says the Son of God, who has eyes like a flame of fire, and His feet like fine brass:
19 I know your works, love, service, faith, and your patience; and as for your works, the last are more than the first.
20 Nevertheless I have a few things against you, because you allow that woman Jezebel, who calls herself a prophetess, to teach and seduce My servants to commit sexual immorality and eat things sacrificed to idols.
21 And I gave her time to repent of her sexual immorality, and she did not repent.
22 Indeed I will cast her into a sickbed, and those who commit adultery with her into great tribulation, unless they repent of their deeds.
23 I will kill her children with death, and all the churches shall know that I am He who searches the minds and hearts. And I will give to each one of you according to your works.