@Ronald Nolette referring back to my post #745 to you....
I'm not waiting on your answer to my question as I believe you do not want to participate at all. So, in good faith I will begin to supply you with a portion of my protracted answer to it - John 1:1.
Starting then slowly, piece by piece, with logic and understanding and context of this introductory verse.
The 1st part of John 1:1 is John 1:1a, translated commonly as:
"In the beginning was the word..."
We can generally agree that John was using an analogous phrase right out of Genesis 1 to start his prologue.
Before time and creation then was the logos or the word.
Now the Greek transliterated symbol, logos, is a general term that has a variety of meanings. It is used about 330 times in the NT. The meaning of logos can be: a statement, an actual word, an utterance, a talk, a story, an idea, a purpose, plan embodied within the mind. It can also mean the expression or voice of the Father using his Spirit.
Even though that in Greek, logos is a masculine noun, when translated into English it loses its gender and becomes a neutered noun. The English language does not have gender specific nouns.
It's important to remember that logos never means an actual person or an object.
It's also important to remember that logos does not have to be translated as 'word.' It could have been translated into English as 'expression' or 'voice.'
It's also important to note that since there is a definite article before logos, the word, it is a specific logos or word, and it belongs or is owned by someone, or one person and ONLY one individual.
Someone owns this specific word!
And who does it belong to?
John 1:1b and part c of the verse gives us the answer.
----to be continued... if I desire, or if you do not want me to continue in answering your initial query------
Great Day!
APAK