When God said that He was the first and the last He was explaining that He existed before all things, and will exist forever. When Jesus said he was the first and the last, he also said, Revelation 1:17-18 (WEB):
(17) When I saw him, I fell at his feet like a dead man. He laid his right hand on me, saying, “Don’t be afraid. I am the first and the last,
(18) and the Living one. I was dead, and behold, I am alive forever and ever. Amen. I have the keys of Death and of Hades.
So God (YHVH) existed before any other living being - He was originally all alone. Jesus, God's only begotten son, was the first of all God's creation, and he too will exist forever (he is now, since his resurrection, immortal). But Jesus is not God, and that is evident because Jesus says that he had died, but now will live for ever, whereas God cannot die - He "alone has immortality" (1 Timothy 6:16). As Barnes' notes says:
Who only hath immortality - The word here - ἀθανασία athanasia - properly means “exemption from death,” and seems to mean that God, in his own nature, enjoys a perfect and certain exemption from death. Creatures have immortality only as they derive it from him, and of course are dependent on him for it. He has it by his very nature, and it is in his case underived, and he cannot be deprived of it. It is one of the essential attributes of his being, that he will always exist, and that death cannot reach him; compare the expression in Joh_5:26, “The Father hath life in himself,” and the notes on that passage.
Eh? Psalms 98:8-9 (WEB):
(8) Let the rivers clap their hands. Let the mountains sing for joy together.
(9) Let them sing before Yahweh, for he comes to judge the earth. He will judge the world with righteousness, and the peoples with equity.
That doesn't say that the wind and waves obey God. Regardless, Jesus calming the wind and the waves was a miracle performed by God at Jesus' request - just like all of the miracles preformed by prophets and Christians that are recorded in the Bible. Men cannot do such things; it is God that performs the miracles. As Jesus said when he raised Lazarus from death, "Father, I thank you that you listened to me" (John 11:41). Jesus also said, John 5:19, “Most certainly, I tell you, the Son can do nothing of himself, but what he sees the Father doing".
I don't understand the point you are making by referring to Job 42:5. What's the relevance? Barnes notes says:
I have heard of thee by the hearing of the ear - Referring to the indistinct views which we have of anything by merely hearing of it, compared with the clear apprehension which is furnished by sight. Job had had such views of God as one may obtain by being told of him; he now had such views as are furnished by the sight. The meaning is, that his views of God before were dark and obscure.
But now mine eye seeth thee - We are not to suppose that Job means to say that he actually “saw” God, but that his apprehensions of him were clear and bright “as if” he did. There is no evidence that God appeared to Job in any visible form. He is said, indeed, to have spoken from the whirlwind, but no visible manifestation of Yahweh is mentioned.
Yep, Jesus is the Messiah, who God anointed to redeem mankind. But the Messiah (God's anointed) is not God!
