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In your opinion, I have a gap in my understanding. What makes you think that the unjust will be resurrected to live in the millenium reign? The bible says it is appointed for man once to die and after that, the judgment (Heb.9:27). We do know there is a second death after the judgment. That's two by my count. One before the judgment, and one after. And we also know that the judgment occurs after the millenium reign.
Many brethren have this 'gap' in their understanding about Christ's Millennium reign; it's mainly because they haven't studied the Old Testament prophets to the depth they study the New Testament Books. If you'll re-read what you wrote in your last two statements, you should eventually discover how you answered you're own question about the resurrected unjust for Christ's Millennium reign. The John 5:28-29 Scripture is one proof; Zechariah 14:16-19 is another; Isaiah 25 is another; as also 1 Cor.15 and Acts 24:15. Then there are several smaller hints throughout God's Word, like in Isaiah, which is an Old Testament Book about God's Salvation. The "outer darkness" Message is also a proof given by our Lord Jesus in the four Gospel Books.
Rev 22:14-15
14 Blessed are they that do His commandments, that they may have right to the tree of life, and may enter in through the gates into the city.
15 For without are dogs, and sorcerers, and whoremongers, and murderers, and idolaters, and whosoever loveth and maketh a lie.
(KJV)
I never fully understood that above Scripture until I got down to study in all of God's Word. It being given in the last chapter of Revelation apparently serves as a test, to see if we'll study all of His Word and not just parts that are popular. Most bypass those verses because they think everything in Rev.22 means past Christ's thousand years reign. Those two verses are showing the time of Christ's future thousand years reign, with the tree of life and beloved city manifested while... the unjust are assigned outside the gates of the holy city, existing there at that time. It aligns with the events in Zech.14:16-19 and Ezekiel about the Millennium time, and especially our Lord's Messages about those assigned to the "outer darkness".
Well...John5:28,29 makes no mention of the second coming. Did Jesus intend to put the same time frame on both resurrections? Or was He simply stating that there would be one for both the just and unjust?
John 5:28-29
28 Marvel not at this: for the hour is coming, in the which all that are in the graves shall hear His voice,
29 And shall come forth; they that have done good, unto the resurrection of life; and they that have done evil, unto the resurrection of damnation.
(KJV)
We don't have to guess at what that "hour" is. The subject of His voice is about the 'shout' of 1 Thess.4:16.
1Thes 4:16
16 For the Lord Himself shall descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise first:
(KJV)
In 1 Thess.4:16 Paul is specifically marking the dead in Christ that will rise in that "hour"; but in John 5:28-29 Jesus is covering it for both the just and the unjust.
As for Paul's hope... It has come to my attention that much of the world has altered the meaning of the word hope. We use it differently now than even a few years ago. In a sentence, one might say.." I hope I win the lottery". This is a wish or desire. That is not what hope meant as it was used in the translation of the bible. The best description of the word is that it means the anticipation of a future event. Paul's statement made no mention of a desire to see the unjust turned to God after their resurrection. It just doesn't say that. He simply said that he had this hope (anticipation), that there will be a resurrection for the just and the unjust. Why assume anything further than that? The passage gives no room for such assumption.
Surely you're not serious? The world's idea of 'hope' is now what Paul's idea of hope was? God forbid.
See Romans 8 for how Paul described the idea of hope by those in Christ Jesus. That's the same... hope he was applying in Acts 24:15, and he showed how he was agreeing with the understanding of the scribes and Pharisees on that... specific matter of the resurrection of the unjust. Paul even said there his hope was towards God about that matter! Your faulty reasoning on that word hope is not going to change what Paul meant there, for it's the same... Greek word he used for the hope in Christ's Salvation in his other Epistles.
This passage does not refer to the unjust, that is those who die without Christ. He is speaking of His elect. I'm sure both you and I will yet learn doctrine in the next life.
The only believers that Isaiah 29 passage is about is those who fall away from Christ in this world, simply because the ones that will be teaching doctrine will be Christ's elect of the "first resurrection". That's part of their job during Christ's future reign as priests and kings. Look at what Jesus said to His elect of the Church of Philadelphia, how He is going to make those of the "synagogue of Satan" bow at their feet in that future time.
There's so much Scripture evidence for the unjust existing throughout Christ's thousand years reign that one would have to be determined to skip it by wanting to heed men's doctrines outside of God's Word instead. I see no reason to continue since it's apparent that's what you've been taught to listen to.