Precious friends, this is an intriguing/interesting thought?:
Why would The LORD "reveal to Paul" that "the sign gifts would cease" before His
Second Coming, IF 'that Coming' is when "That Which Is Perfect Is Come"?
Did He Make 'an error'? Why didn't He Just Leave 'Such A Statement' out to
"prevent Much Confusion" since they will continue until He Comes anyway?
( Sure would be a LOT Less "biting and devouring" over the Massive Confusion, eh? )
Perchance He Really Meant His Pure And Preserved Word, Which He "Has Magnified
Above All His Holy Name" is Actually "That Which Is Perfect" and that "It Has Come"
and. thus "the sign gifts Have Actually Already ceased"?
What think ye?
Amen.
Why would The LORD "reveal to Paul" that "the sign gifts would cease" before His
Second Coming, IF 'that Coming' is when "That Which Is Perfect Is Come"?
Did He Make 'an error'? Why didn't He Just Leave 'Such A Statement' out to
"prevent Much Confusion" since they will continue until He Comes anyway?
( Sure would be a LOT Less "biting and devouring" over the Massive Confusion, eh? )
Perchance He Really Meant His Pure And Preserved Word, Which He "Has Magnified
Above All His Holy Name" is Actually "That Which Is Perfect" and that "It Has Come"
and. thus "the sign gifts Have Actually Already ceased"?
What think ye?
Amen.
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