First allow me to say I could be wrong in my understanding. Please bear with me, for some information that may be of use for you in other instances.
The above verse is from the kjv. The Jews have a English translation of the old testament (Tanach to them) called the JPS translation, the Jewish Publication Society of America first published in 1917, and revised in 1985).
Where the kjv has "pollute", the JPS has "profaned".
At this link is the JPS translation, plus the option of displaying Rashi's comments. Rashi was a Jewish commentator from France back around 1100 AD, still held in high regards by Jews. Although certainly not always right, a person can get insights sometimes from his comments when applicable.
7And I will make known My Holy Name in the midst of My people Israel, and I will no longer cause My Holy Name to be
profaned, and the nations will know that I, the Lord, am holy in Israel.
Rashi's comment is....
"and I will no longer cause My Holy Name to be profaned: For Israel’s degradation is a profanation of His Name, “inasmuch as it is said of them, ‘these are the people of the Lord’” (above 36:20), and He is unable to save them."
So what Rashi is saying back in Ezekiel 36, when the Jews were scattered into the nations, it made it look like the God of Israel was incapable of keeping it from happening - thus profaning the God of Israel as incapable.
Ezekiel 36:19-32 indicates what will happen in Ezekiel 39 regarding Israel and God acting to sanctify His Holy Name. (my answer to your question - My question for you is do you know what verse Ezekiel 39:8 is referring back to where God previously spoke of that day?)
Thus, when the God of Israel in Ezekiel 38-39 defends Israel supernaturally against the Gog/Magog invaders - it will show that He is fully capable of defending Israel. And also, imo, that He is not Allah, the god of the Muslims.