You said......Where does that verse say "Gentile nations"? Nowhere. It just says "the nations".
I presented scripture that proved the nations could only be Gentile nations....Israel wasnt lumped together with Gentile nations....they were separate......if you want to say my answers are dismissive then fine......I will always be happy for discussions
I say you are dismissive because you don't specifically address most of what I say. You didn't address the rest of what I said about what the word can mean such as in Revelation 20:7-9 where it refers to individuals from throughout the world rather than nations because they number "as the sand of the sea". Why did you not give any thoughts on that?
You are trying to make it as if the word "nations", which is translated from the Greek word "ethnos", can only mean one thing, but that is not the case. I'd show you the definitions of the Greek word, but I already know that you don't care about that and think that our English translations are perfect.
Matthew 28:19
Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, 20 and teaching them to obey everything I have commanded you. And surely I am with you always, to the very end of the age.”
Since you think any reference to "nations" refers to Gentile nations, can you tell me which Gentile nations Jesus's disciples baptized? How is it possible to baptize a nation? And why would Jesus tell them to make disciples of and only baptize Gentile nations but not Israel after He had told them "you will be my witnesses in Jerusalem, and in all Judea and Samaria, and to the ends of the earth.” (Acts 1:8)?