Here is what he said:
He was not saying that verses 6, 13, 14 have a dual fulfillment, he was saying he thinks those verses have a different context than the end of the age when Jesus comes. So, he sees those verses as only relating to 70 AD and not the end of the age.
I don't agree with his interpretation of verse 14 and 15. At least he doesn't have Jesus being all over the place like your interpretation does. Your interpretation has Jesus focusing on the end of this age in verse 14 then in verse 15 He is once again focusing on events not even relevant to verse 14. IOW, who cares what happened 2000 years ago if the topic of discussion at the time is the end of the age in verse 14? Jesus certainly didn't. But you care though, IOW, because of doctrinal bias, otherwise you wouldn't have Jesus being all over the place here to where He can't seem to make up His mind what He wants to focus on. Once again, as if 70 AD is still relevant as of verse 14. It would still be relevant if
@covenantee was actually interpreting verse 14 correctly. Except he isn't.
It's bizarre. You are interpreting verse 14 correctly,
@covenantee isn't. Yet you are both interpreting verses 15-21 in the same manner. IOW, since
@covenantee is not interpreting verse 14 correctly but you are, you shouldn't then be interpreting verses 15-21 in the same manner as
@covenantee, since you are not using sound hermeneutics in this case, while
@covenantee is, except he is not interpreting verse 14 correctly. He at least knows one can't have verse 14 meaning 2000 thousand years later, then have verses 15-21 meaning 2000 years earlier, then that adding up to sound hermeneutics. His hermeneutics are sound in this case. Except it is all in vain since he is not interpreting verse 14 correctly.