HealthyShape
Well-Known Member
We were talking about the YHWH title/name, not about the word "virgin".The LXX and Justin Martyr are the only other witnesses to word betulah being originally used.
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We were talking about the YHWH title/name, not about the word "virgin".The LXX and Justin Martyr are the only other witnesses to word betulah being originally used.
Firstly,Before going through your texts. I will offer one myself which completely supports the concept of preexistence.
“6 Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God: 7 But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men: 8 And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross. 9 Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name: ”
Philippians 2:6-9 KJV
What does Satan mean in Hebrew? AdversaryThe King of Tyre walking and trading among the stones of Israel! What an extraordinary use of Garden of Eden imagery and high priestly breastplate symbolism in connection with him. The so-called “Christian Satan” (the adversary) is nowhere to be found here, RLT!
Correct, in most cases human, though can be God or an obedient Angel.What does Satan mean in Hebrew? Adversary
So far, in this forum over the past 12 months, no one has been able to prove the existence or identity of an archangelic enemy of God. Many have tried, you’re welcome to give it a try as well.As a proper noun: Over time, the term began to be used specifically for the supernatural accuser. The definite article "ha" (הַ), meaning "the," is often added, making it ha-satan or "the adversary". This specific usage appears in books like Job and Zechariah.
What’s striking is that nowhere in the chapter you quoted is “Satan” or “devil” mentioned. So before you even write a single word, your argument is already based on an inference, not the text. Definitely not a good place to start!What does Satan mean in Hebrew? Adversary
As a proper noun: Over time, the term began to be used specifically for the supernatural accuser. The definite article "ha" (הַ), meaning "the," is often added, making it ha-satan or "the adversary". This specific usage appears in books like Job and Zechariah.
I didn’t quote a chapter, I just gave the definition so I don’t really know what you’re talking about, unless you mean the King of Tyre. Clearly this passage is not speaking about a mere humanWhat’s striking is that nowhere in the chapter you quoted is “Satan” or “devil” mentioned. So before you even write a single word, your argument is already based on an inference, not the text. Definitely not a good place to start!
I went through the entire chapter with @Aunty Jane, and she had nothing to respond to the correct interpratation. Yet to this day, she still quotes that chapter to support her belief, fully aware of the correct understanding.
Do you know what that’s called?
Ezek 28I didn’t quote a chapter, I just gave the definition so I don’t really know what you’re talking about
It’s clearly not speaking about a mere human. Who was in Eden?Ezek 28
You missed the point - you will need to use your spiritual mind and seek to understand how God is using this imagery in relation to the King.It’s clearly not speaking about a mere human. Who was in Eden?
The King of Tyre wasn’t in Eden or Heaven and he wasn’t a cherubYou missed the point - you will need to use your spiritual mind and seek to understand how God is using this imagery in relation to the King.
28:11 The word of the Lord came to me: 28:12 “Son of man, sing a lament for the king of Tyre, and say to him, ‘This is what the sovereign Lord says: Eze 28:11–12.
If you can't understand the lament in relation to the King you need to put in the time to do so.
Getting close!The King of Tyre wasn’t in Eden or Heaven and he wasn’t a cherub
A simple yes or no will not do when I disagree with your principle premise... God or Son to servant... Both.Firstly,
Was Paul teaching God to Servant or Son to Servant?
If you quote from a letter, do you think it's important to understand its core theme and how Paul shapes his Exhortation points?
Theme: The Mind of Christ (phroneō (“to think”) in Philippians) 11 times!!!
Philippians 1:7 – to think; to feel. Describes Paul’s feelings for the believers.
Philippians 2:2 – likeminded. Describes the type of unity needed in the church.
Philippians 2:2 – one mind. Same context of ecclesial unity.
Philippians 2:5 – this mind. Refers to an attitude of mind - the mind of Christ.
Philippians 3:15 – this mind. Describes a similar point of view.
Philippians 3:15 – think otherwise. Describes a differing point of view.
Philippians 3:16 – same mind. Refers to similar thinking or perspective.
Philippians 3:19 – set their mind. Describes those focused on earthly things.
Philippians 4:2 – same mind. Refers to two sisters who need to be in agreement.
Philippians 4:10 – care. Refers to thoughtful concern.
Philippians 4:10 – care. Repeated, emphasizing careful concern.
Do you agree with the context above and this central theme of "let this mind be in you which was in Christ Jesus"
A simple yes or no will do for now.
So you don't believe the theme of "mind" is in Philippians...I'm looking for integrity from you, and you are giving nothing.A simple yes or no will not do when I disagree with your principle premise... God or Son to servant... Both.
If you don't think that the Son begotten of God is not God, then what is He?
Unfortunately, you don’t have the context in Philippians for either point, nor do you seem to recognize the inspired Scriptures on which Paul is basing his teaching.A simple yes or no will not do when I disagree with your principle premise... God or Son to servant... Both.
Well, firstly Jesus refers to himself as the Son of Man - 83 times.If you don't think that the Son begotten of God is not God, then what is He?
As I said...I'm not going to debate the divinity of Jesus or the fact that He existed from the beginning, if eternity can have a beginning....He always was.Paul calls Jesus “the firstborn of all creation” and states that “all things were made through him and for him”....(Col 1:15-17)
Heb 1:3 is also saying that Jesus is “the exact representation of his nature”....the word “nature” in that verse is unique because other verses that use this same word (hypostasis) are translated as “confidence” or “assurance”....so what does Paul mean if this word is only used in Paul’s writings?
What then is a “representation”? (charaktēr)?
It s defined as....
- “the exact expression (the image) of any person or thing, marked likeness, precise reproduction in every respect, i.e facsimile.” (Strongs)
So what was Jesus then? A “representation” is not the original, but a “marked likeness”...a “facsimile”.
Does that mean that Jesus was God...or just exactly like him in character and personality? How else could Jesus be the “image of the invisible God”? (Col 1:15)
Where do the translators get their ideas from when translating these words, if they don’t agree with the other places that they appear when said by the same person?
Does it? Can Jesus rightly be called “theos” (god) and not be God with a capital “G”? The Bible answers yes!
The primary definition of “theos” in Greek is....
- “a god or goddess, a general name of deities or divinities” (Strongs)
Was Jesus a divine being? Who could argue with that? Of course he was divine.....he came from God as his “firstborn”.....his “only begotten son”....by the very nature of the relationship of father and son, we understand that these are not the same person.....one was “begotten” by the other, and therefore had to have existed first.
Rev 3:14 says...
“To the angel of the church in Laodicea write: The Amen, the faithful and true Witness, the Beginning of the creation of God, says this:....” (NASB)
“And to the angel of the church in Laodicea write: ‘The words of the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of God's creation.” (ESV)
“And unto the angel of the church of the Laodiceans write; These things saith the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation of God;” (KJV)
What are we missing here...? Or rather, what are we ignoring?
Yes, because that is what Scripture teaches.....not what the “the church” introduced as doctrine centuries after Jesus died.
It really doesn’t matter what any human thinks or defines as a “Christian”....what counts is whether Jesus considers us to be his disciples and under obligation to teach what he taught.
Jesus confirms that the majority of those claiming him as their “Lord” will come to grief, making vain excuses because they were so sure that they were genuine “Christians”......Jesus’ response to them will be “I never knew you! Depart from me you workers of lawlessness”....(Matt 7:21-23)
“Never” means “not ever”. .....so not in their entire existence have these counterfeit “Christians” been the genuine article, whilst pointing fingers at others and claiming that they were not “real Christians”.....and at the same time claiming their own exclusivity, whilst teaching things that Jesus never did.
In Jesus’ day who were the real heretics? The ones who put Christ to death whilst claiming to serve the same God. When Jesus comes as judge he will encounter the same scenario.....those who claim Jesus as their “Lord “ and “savior” will find themselves on the wrong road. (Matt 7:13-14) Their destination is a dead end...yet they will not believe the truth. (2 Thess 2:9-12)
The Son of Man refers to Daniel....Unfortunately, you don’t have the context in Philippians for either point, nor do you seem to recognize the inspired Scriptures on which Paul is basing his teaching.
Well, firstly Jesus refers to himself as the Son of Man - 83 times.
How many times does he refer to himself as the Son of God?
The Apostle in Romans states he became the Son of God with Power, how?
1:2 This gospel he promised beforehand through his prophets in the holy scriptures, 1:3 concerning his Son who was a descendant of David with reference to the flesh, (Son of Man) 1:4 who was appointed the Son-of-God-in-power according to the Holy Spirit by the resurrection from the dead, Jesus Christ our Lord. Romans 1:2–4.
If I took you through the Acts of the Apostles, do you really think we’d find the same teaching as above?
Brakelite, you seem to believe that simply copying and pasting Philippians 2 somehow proves your doctrinal creed, but it doesn’t, and it never will accomplish what you’re trying to make it say. Mainly because you cannot understand the central themes of that letter or the basis of his points.
I even gave you a list of verses so you could “follow the crumbs,” yet I know the true meaning of those passages will remain hidden from you as long as you assume you already have all the answers.
G,,,Again let me reword this
This is like texting things get lost.
There is no J's in the Greek or Hebrew or Aramaic.
There are 3 Gods in the New Testament.....big G.
God is a divine position, not a person and not a name. Yahweh would no more say Hello I am God than you would say hello I am person. In some ways that gets lost because they removed God's name from the Old Testament 6,800 times and replaced His name with the word God or Lord or Both and people try to stuff the word God with three Gods.
A God named Yahweh God the father Almighty and supreme God and creator God.
A God named Yeshua God the Son.....Savior....Messiah
The Unnamed God.....the Holy Spirit.....helper....guide....the communicator.
All Gods that set on thrones....Yeshua sits to the right of the Father.
I have an essay that that has a hundred scriptures that proves the one God formula wrong
My Father in Heaven.....The Father is greater than I.....Yeshua ascended to His Father....Yahweh has a Son named Yeshua....Yeshua prays to His Father in the garden. etc