"No one has ever yet seen God. The only begotten God, the One being in the bosom of the Father, He has made Him known."
J 1:18
“No one has ever yet seen God.”...seems a pretty clear statement. How many people saw Jesus?
Can you tell me how “God” can be “begotten”? “Monogenes” in Greek means an only child, and this “only begotten god” is “in the bosom of the Father”...which in Jewish culture meant a position of favour with God.
Can God be in a position of favor with himself?
No one has ever gone into heaven except the one who came from heaven - Son of Man.
J 3:13
What is this saying?
If no one ever went to heaven before Jesus, where did all the prophets of old go when they died?
"For in Christ all the fullness of the Deity lives in bodily form"
Col 2:9
What does it mean “fullness of deity”?
To me this says that Jesus reflected the entirety of all of his Father’s qualities, in every way. It doesn’t say “Jesus is God”.
"...awaiting the blessed hope and the appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ."
Titus 2:13
If you read that in Greek...it doesn’t say what is translated into English.
In Greek phrasing it actually says...
“
awaiting τὴν
the μακαρίαν
happy ἐλπίδα
hope καὶ
and ἐπιφάνειαν
manifestation τῆς
of the δόξης
glory τοῦ
of the μεγάλου
great θεοῦ
God καὶ
and σωτῆρος
of Savior ἡμῶν
of us Χριστοῦ
of Christ Ἰησοῦ,
Jesus”.
This is not identifying Jesus as God. Both God and his Son are glorious beings.....but Jesus‘ glory is from his Father. The Father is the one who gave glory to all his spirit sons....but his “firstborn” is unique as “the firstborn of ALL creation”. (Col 1:15)
make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit.
Mt 28:19
All three have a role in the journey of all who become baptized and active disciples of Jesus Christ.
Nowhere does it say that these three are one God.
I overthrew you, as God overthrew Sodoma and Gomorrha, and ye became as a brand plucked out of the fire: yet not even thus did ye return to me, says Yahweh.
Am 4:11 (Yahweh is talking about God in the third person)
This is an interesting one....if you look this up in a Hebrew Interlinear, there is an interesting distinction between the word “God” (
ĕlōhîm) and Yahweh (הֹוָה Yᵉhôvâh)
You said that Yahweh is talking about himself in the third person....is this seen elsewhere in the Hebrew Scriptures?
What about Gen 19:24...?
“Then the Lord (Yahweh) rained on Sodom and Gomorrah brimstone and fire from the Lord (Yahweh) out of heaven”. (NASB)
And Zechariah 3:2 says....
“The Lord (Yahweh) said to Satan, “The Lord (Yahweh) rebuke you, Satan! Indeed, the Lord (Yahweh) who has chosen Jerusalem rebuke you! Is this not a brand plucked from the fire?”
In what manner was Yahweh speaking here? Was it directly, or was Yahweh speaking though a representative? Do we have any examples where Yahweh spoke through a representative and spoke as if it was Yahweh himself speaking?
One that comes to mind is the appearance of three angels who came to Abraham to inform him of the birth of his son Isaac. (Gen 18) One of those angels spoke as if he was Yahweh, but we know that this is an impossibility because
“no man has ever seen God” (John 1:18) So a representative of the true God can speak on his behalf....and that is what God’s prophets were....they spoke Yahweh’s words to his human servants.
Jesus was also a representative of his Father.....his title “Logos” can mean “one who speaks God’s words”...which he did on every occasion.......
“So Jesus answered them and said, “My teaching is not Mine, but His who sent Me.”
So there is an explanation.....