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It is true the KJV doesn't use the word departure...but...these early translations do.What translation are you using? My KJV doesn’t use the word “departure.”
2 Thessalonians 2:1-4 (KJV) 1 Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and [by] our gathering together unto him, 2 That ye be not soon shaken in mind, or be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as from us, as that the day of Christ is at hand. 3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for [that day shall not come], except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition; 4 Who opposeth and exalteth himself above all that is called God, or that is worshipped; so that he as God sitteth in the temple of God, shewing himself that he is God.
Is this what you're looking for?Can you post the whole passage using that ”departure“ word?
Yes, that’s what I was looking for. Thanks.Is this what you're looking for?
Geneva Bible of 1587
Let no man deceiue you by any meanes: for that day shall not come, except there come a departing first, and that that man of sinne be disclosed, euen the sonne of perdition,
Coverdale Bible of 1535
Let noman disceaue you by eny meanes. For the LORDE commeth not, excepte the departynge come first, and that that Man of synne be opened, euen the sonne of perdicion,
Tyndale Bible of 1526
Let no ma deceave you by eny meanes for the lorde commeth not excepte ther come a departynge fyrst and that that synfnll man be opened ye sonne of perdicion
"From the faith" is impliedYes, that’s what I was looking for. Thanks.
Is this what you're looking for?
Geneva Bible of 1587
Let no man deceiue you by any meanes: for that day shall not come, except there come a departing first, and that that man of sinne be disclosed, euen the sonne of perdition,
Coverdale Bible of 1535
Let noman disceaue you by eny meanes. For the LORDE commeth not, excepte the departynge come first, and that that Man of synne be opened, euen the sonne of perdicion,
Tyndale Bible of 1526
Let no ma deceave you by eny meanes for the lorde commeth not excepte ther come a departynge fyrst and that that synfnll man be opened ye sonne of perdicion
Thank you for kindly sharing that."From the faith" is implied
People assume it's from the faith. It's what we learned on the felt boards.Thank you for kindly sharing that.
A felt board was what they used 'back then" in Sunday School where they stuck material cut out into characters onto a felt board to present a lesson.What’s a felt board?
I understand what you're saying but...
I've read the verse and "faith" isn't mentioned in the verse. People...scholars...insert "from the faith" into 2 Thes 2:3 where it says...Let no one deceive you in any way. For that day will not come, unless the departure (from the faith) comes first...."from the faith" is assumed.
You are out of touch.LOL....I guess you know more than a master greek scholar. AT Robertson is the best. All you have is insults. The true facts elude you.
LOL....how ignorant can you be! Less than 5% of the dead sea scrolls were written in Greek and the dead sea scrolls did not contain any new testament manuscripts. And you call me arrogant...LOL.You are out of touch.
Metzger is considered by many today to have surpassed anything Robertson created.
Robertson died in 1934. He didn't even survive long enough to have seen the Dead Sea Scrolls. His work has been eclipsed for that fact alone.
Try to keep up, ok? Your arrogance is misplaced.
(And I don't even LIKE Metzger.)

You might be deceived by the first jesus who shows up and end up worshiping him, thus getting caught up in the great apostasy.
The verse is referring to the elect being gathered from the entire earth, which I believe refers to the resurrected dead in Christ and those who are alive and remain until Christ's future coming and also from all of heaven which I believe represents the souls of the dead in Christ. Do you disagree? If so, why?Where is the "end of heaven" mentioned in verse 27?
You acknowledge that it refers to a departure from the faith, but still somehow conclude that the rapture will occur before that despite Paul explicitly teaching that the coming of Christ and rapture (gathering) will occur after that. Unbelievable.Did you read my post?
I am NOT SAYING IT IS INCORRECTLY translated.
I am saying you guys never look anything up.
AS YOU JUST SHOWCASED.
apostasia
apostasia
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FROM-STANDing.
(Hello...IT SIMPLY TRANSLATES "DEPARTURE".
THE LITERAL would read "a departure first".
It is simply a fact.)
The comedy is that WHEN THE LITERAL IS PRESENTED, It invokes such scrambling and dancing around.
I have HONESTLY looked at it and agree it is a departure from the faith.( studied it almost 50 yrs ago)
The difference is:
1) it has no actual bearing in the debate as some "smoking gun"
2) I can read the literal translation in rest, and accept what is there. Or go with what is implied.( from the faith)
3) you guys have no idea that either way it HARMONIZES PERFECTLY with the pretrib rapture model.
IOW the difference is I have no dog in that fight. I am only correcting what you guys have not studied.
Paul was absolutely not saying that a physical departure would occur first before the second coming occurs. The mass apostasy/falling away is global, not just in the ancient province of Asia or anything like that. You are going out of your way to deny the truth that Paul wrote about in 2 Thessalonians 2. The coming of Christ and our being gathered to Him (rapture) will not occur until mass global apostasy occurs first. That is what Paul taught and what you are going far out of your way to deny.Thanks precious friend, appreciate your valuable input.
imho, God's Sound Doctrine Cannot Be Established By "using one verse only" ( as Many think? ),
so with These Bible Study Rules, I also studied this out in my 18-month:
God's Great ( Pre-trib ) GRACE Departure! Venture, if you care to take a look
-------------
Part (9) God's Removal Of His Body!
Precious friend(s) about midway of 17 parts, for your Careful consideration:
Please let us all prayerfully ask God's Question, Through His One Grace apostle, Paul,
"What Saith The Scripture?":
”...he who withholdeth/hindereth Until Taken Out of the way.And Then shall that Wicked be revealed!...” (2 Thessalonians 2:7b-8a AV)
First, Carefully Note The 'Timing Words' Of God In This Important Passage! Amen?
Next!:
Many are having Great difficulty interpreting The "falling away ( greek apostasia )"
In verse 3. Some would have us to believe that "He who withholdeth/hindereth" is:
Actually interpreted as "those Great number today who are going into apostasy,
departing 'from the faith.'"
So we wish to kindly/humbly ask: When The last one has 'fallen away', does that then mean:
"they were Taken Out of the way"? And, only Then will "The Wicked one be revealed"?
Did they then "take themselves" out of the way? Does that make any sense?
More sensible, if this idea is true, would be:
"They who withholdeth/hindereth" [ Changing Scripture ] Correct?
So What is "The Departure ( 'Taken Out Of the way' ) Truth" That God Gave Paul in This Passage?
We perceive it is not a Great departure "from the faith," as these propose, because:
A) Did we not Already have that, almost 2000 Years ago?:
"...all they which are in Asia be turned away from me [ Paul ]!..." (2 Timothy 1:15 AV)In addition, God Revealed To Paul, this Plain And Clear Statement, For "our Last Days!":"Now The Spirit Speaketh Expressly, that in the latter times Some shall departfrom the faith, giving heed to seducing spirits, and doctrines of devils!"(1 Timothy 4:1 AV)So, may we humbly And kindly ask: Why are many Still looking for:"a Great Apostasy ("interpretation"? of "falling away")" and for the man of sin, son of Perdition?
B) Please bear with, for a moment, this Very brief Greek lesson?:
In 1 Timothy 4:1 AV that "departure { greek aphestemi }" is "from the faith!"cp Hebrews 3:12 AV: "Departing { "same" greek aphestemi )" Is "From The Living God!!"
Thus, with a Different Original word, a departure { apostasia } 'from the faith' interpretation would be incorrect, Correct?[ btw, I am a simpleton, not a language scholar, thus this explanation above will bemy only brief attempt at such a thing. The rest will just be plain English. Thanks. ]
to be continued...
And yet you TOTALLY ignored the salient point: I our buddy Robertson is a has been since Metzger has eclipsed him.LOL....how ignorant can you be! Less than 5% of the dead sea scrolls were written in Greek and the dead sea scrolls did not contain any new testament manuscripts. And you call me arrogant...LOL.
Oh yeah, try to keep up...![]()
The beast mark will occur during the tribulation and by taking it you are ensured a ticket to the lake of fire equals you have lost salvation.Departure "from the Earth" is assumed by Pretrib but the word apostasia does not mean a physical departure. It only means an Apostasy of some type.
So, Post trib uses the REAL definition while Pretrib uses a FALSE definition. Post trib is not assuming anything.
It should scare you that you are hoping the apostasia is the rapture when it is the Apostasy from Christ to the antichrist.