Yes. That's the exact point I've been trying to make. Hebrews 10:26-31 is just a reiteration of Numbers 15:30-31 and Deuteronomy 29:18-20 (Hebrews 10:28 shows us that the author is making that connection). You can't reject covenant with God by going your own way and somehow be in covenant with God. Note in Deuteronomy 29:19 how the person who does that does so in the false thinking that he is safe in doing that. That's not at all unlike today how Christians take false comfort in believing they can 'go their own way' in a departure from Christ and still be safe in covenant with God. We call that 'once saved always saved'. Jeremiah also spoke against that false thinking in Jeremiah 7:9.
We see in many places in the Bible where the old testament scriptures are the inspiration for the new. Hebrews 10:26-31 is one of those. When Christ came the old testament scriptures did not cease being the holy scriptures of their day. This single point is perhaps the biggest reason why the church lacks scriptural insight into the New Testament, and as a result has invented so many false theologies.
Firstly, I don’t believe that there are genuine Christians out there that have such take, more so find comfort in such, that they can 'go their own way' in a departure from Christ and still be safe in covenant with God.
Now going back. So you take the willful sin in Hebrews 10:26 to be the same sin spoken of in Numbers 15:30-31.
But, is not the law in Numbers 15:30-31 a law to those who are under the old covenant of which had already been replaced by the new covenant? Such law binds all those who are under the law, which are those of the circumcision. If the writer of Hebrews was addressing them, I would not have any problem with that. But he is addressing the Christians, those who are no longer under the law but are under the new covenant. Was the writer under the law as he identifies with them to whom he writes saying “We”? Obviously not. So, that’s problematic.
Another is that, if the writer is applying that law to the Christians, then the punishment for that would be that specified in that law, right? And that is, he shall be cut off from among his people, that is, he will be put to death, physically that is. Then there is the question, from whom will he be cut off? Who are his people? In the OT that would be the people of the circumcision. And that is what happens if we apply the law to Christians.
Another is that, in that law, the said sin does not even constitute one that is continuing, which in your take that that spoken of in Heb.10:26 is of a continuing nature. So, in that sense, they are not the same sin.
Still another is that, you said that, if the Christian is guilty of a willful sin but came to repentance, he will be shown mercy and will be forgiven and his willful sin will be covered by the sacrifice of Christ. But then, there is no forgiveness for such willful sin spoken in Numbers 15:30-31, as also there is not a sacrifice for such sin for it to be forgiven. That doesn’t fit well with Heb.10:26, where it says “there no longer remains sacrifices for sins”.
I think there’s. But I think that’s already a lot to consider.
Tong
R1477