A Christian who deny Jesus is God in Flesh

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justbyfaith

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GINOLJC, to all.
Ok, I'll make it as plain as I can..... is God, the Holy Spirit, (one Person) is the equal share, (G243), of himself in flesh? yes or no.


PICJAG
101G The "Spiritual Saboteur"
Most definitely.

And I am merely setting forth the same idea but in different terminology.

For I would declare that the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost are the same Spirit and therefore the same Person;

However they are also distinct from each other in that the Son is come in the flesh and the Holy Ghost has lived a human life (Luke 23:46) where the Father has not and therefore the Holy Ghost understands humanity.
 

101G

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Most definitely.

And I am merely setting forth the same idea but in different terminology.

For I would declare that the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost are the same Spirit and therefore the same Person;

However they are also distinct from each other in that the Son is come in the flesh and the Holy Ghost has lived a human life (Luke 23:46) where the Father has not and therefore the Holy Ghost understands humanity.
first thanks for the reply, second, your statement prove that you and I are not saying the same thing. listen to yourself, "However they are also distinct from each other in that the Son is come in the flesh and the Holy Ghost has lived a human life (Luke 23:46) where the Father has not and therefore the Holy Ghost understands humanity".


"the Holy Ghost has lived a human life (Luke 23:46) where the Father has not". My God the Holy Ghost is the Father. see I knew you was not saying the same thing. buddy, buddy, the Holy Ghost is the Father in Flesh who is the Son. it ain't no THEY, only him, shared in flesh.

you still have two or more God, and that's by definition, polytheism. and you proved that in your Luke 23:46 "And when Jesus had cried with a loud voice, he said, Father, into thy hands I commend my spirit: and having said thus, he gave up the ghost."

did you see the small case "s" in spirit. now jbf you claim that they are the same "Spirit". that was correct, but now you used Luke 23:46 to say that there is a distinction? ERROR, the small case "s" in spirit is a G2758 κενόω kenoo (ke-no-ō') spirit, only without POWER. but you ERROR again when you used the verse, because in GLORIFCATION, the small case "s" spirit is now in a NEW BODY, whith POWER... :D YIKES!. why do you think that he commend his SHARED "G2758 κενόω kenoo spirit unto the Father for? answer, his Glorification or the Amalgamation of his shared spirit upon his resurrection, (see John 17:4 & 5)

see jbf, the Holy Ghost/Holy Spirit, (the ordinal First), is the Father who shared himself in Flesh as the Son, (the same one person). so either IN FLESH, or out of FLESH, it's the same one Person.

that's why some could not answer, Zechariah 12:10 "And I will pour upon the house of David, and upon the inhabitants of Jerusalem, the spirit of grace and of supplications: and they shall look upon me whom they have pierced, and they shall mourn for him, as one mourneth for his only son, and shall be in bitterness for him, as one that is in bitterness for his firstborn."

see, that was JESUS there, as LORD/Father, the ordinal First, ...... THE HOLY SPIRIT. Yes, the Holy Spirit that was pierced while in flesh, that's why when the apostle Paul, when speaking to the elders at Miletum, watch what he says, Acts 20:28 "Take heed therefore unto yourselves, and to all the flock, over the which the Holy Ghost hath made you overseers, to feed the church of God, which he hath purchased with his own blood."

see, verses like these tells us who the Holy Ghost is. is not the Holy Spirit "Spirit", so when did he, the Holy Ghost have blood? answer when he manifested in a Body, Philippians 2:6 "Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:"

see jbs, God's own arm is he himself, listen, Isaiah 63:5 "And I looked, and there was none to help; and I wondered that there was none to uphold: therefore mine own arm brought salvation unto me; and my fury, it upheld me."

did you really hear what the Lord Jesus said? MY, MY, MY, MY, OWN "ARM" brought salvation unto.. ME, ME, ME, ME. yes me is MY.. MINE OWN.. ARM. just as in Revelation 3:12. follow the MY which is ME... "Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my God, and the name of the city of my God, which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God: and I will write upon him my new name."

do we have to paint a picture? MY Father is ME, without flesh, without bone, and without BLOOD. MY Son is ME, With flesh, with bone, and with BLOOD... THAT'S ME, or as he said it plainly, "I AM HE"... BINGO.

once more, I, I, I, AM, "he" Revelation 3:12. "Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my God, and the name of the city of my God, which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God: and I will write upon him my new name."


and I will write upon him my new name... oh my God.....


possessive pronouns and possessive determiners. We use possessive determiners before a noun.

Pronouns: possessive (my, mine, your, yours, etc.)

personal pronoun ****** possessive determiner **** possessive pronoun

********* I ******************** my ******************* mine
 

Pearl

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Romans 9:5
Theirs are the patriarchs, and from them is traced the human ancestry of the Messiah, who is God over all, for ever praised! Amen.

For all those who aren't sure of the deity of Jesus, this nails it for me. But I'm sure there will be those who still don't believe.
 
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justbyfaith

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"the Holy Ghost has lived a human life (Luke 23:46) where the Father has not". My God the Holy Ghost is the Father.

Of course He is the Father. He is the same Spirit that descended to become Jesus Christ (the Son). The same Spirit who dwelt within Jesus Christ (John 4:23-24, John 14:7-11).

When He is released back into eternity (Luke 23:46), He has experience behind Him that He did not have before He descended, is what I am saying.

see jbf, the Holy Ghost/Holy Spirit, (the ordinal First), is the Father who shared himself in Flesh as the Son, (the same one person). so either IN FLESH, or out of FLESH, it's the same one Person.

Agreed.

see jbf <fify>, God's own arm is he himself, listen, Isaiah 63:5 "And I looked, and there was none to help; and I wondered that there was none to uphold: therefore mine own arm brought salvation unto me; and my fury, it upheld me."

I would only point out that Jesus is not only God's arm. For all the fulness of the Godhead dwells within Him, in bodily form (Colossians 2:9)

do we have to paint a picture? MY Father is ME, without flesh, without bone, and without BLOOD. MY Son is ME, With flesh, with bone, and with BLOOD... THAT'S ME, or as he said it plainly, "I AM HE"... BINGO.

This is exactly what I have been teaching, using different terminology than what you use (which is why, perhaps, you don't see that we are actually teaching the same thing).
 

justbyfaith

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Although, @101G,

we differ in the understanding that I believe that Mary is the mother of the Lord and not the surrogate mother of our Lord (Luke 1:43).
 

101G

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jbf said,
see jbf <fify>, God's own arm is he himself, listen, Isaiah 63:5 "And I looked, and there was none to help; and I wondered that there was none to uphold: therefore mine own arm brought salvation unto me; and my fury, it upheld me."
I would only point out that Jesus is not only God's arm. For all the fulness of the Godhead dwells within Him, in bodily form (Colossians 2:9)


you keep on missing what I have been saying. is this not what I been saying, but more? listen, God's OWN ARM is him.. "POWER", scripture, 1 Corinthians 1:24 "But unto them which are called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God, and the wisdom of God."

see the Lord Jesus is all of God. see, in your STATEMENT you said, "I would only point out that Jesus is not only God's arm". his ARM, is only an anthropomorphism that DESCRIBE all of him in FLESH, listen, Philippians 2:6 "Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:" the "FORM" of God is Spirit, and this Spirit is the "EQUAL"{, ..... WITH...... WITH... ans you know there is no one EQUAL to God. so that's God, who is a Spirit, (per John 4:24a), totally. BINGO.

Although, @101G,
we differ in the understanding that I believe that Mary is the mother of the Lord and not the surrogate mother of our Lord (Luke 1:43).

ONLY THE "BIRTH MOTHER", and not his biological mother. did you not read? listen, John 3:31 "He that cometh from above is above all: he that is of the earth is earthly, and speaketh of the earth: he that cometh from heaven is above all."

John 8:23 "And he said unto them, Ye are from beneath; I am from above: ye are of this world; I am not of this world."

jbf, jbf, jbf, did you not hear the Lord Jesus when he said, John 8:56 "Your father Abraham rejoiced to see my day: and he saw it, and was glad."
John 8:57 "Then said the Jews unto him, Thou art not yet fifty years old, and hast thou seen Abraham?"
John 8:58 "Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am."

now put your think cap on just for a second. if he Jesus is before ABRAHAM, how can he be her biological son?

just as the Lord Jesus asked, Matthew 22:41 "While the Pharisees were gathered together, Jesus asked them,"
Matthew 22:42 "Saying, What think ye of Christ? whose son is he? They say unto him, The Son of David."
Matthew 22:43 "He saith unto them, How then doth David in spirit call him Lord, saying,"
Matthew 22:44 "The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool?"
Matthew 22:45 "If David then call him Lord, how is he his son?"
Matthew 22:46 "And no man was able to answer him a word, neither durst any man from that day forth ask him any more questions."

do the Lord Jesus answer you question?..... Mary is no way his biological mother. we suggest you study the verses above, Matthew 22:43-45

PICJAG
101G The "Spiritual Saboteur"
 

101G

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In the hypostatic union, silly.
LOL, there is no hypostatic union, only a MANIFESTATION in flesh........ :D YIKES!.
as I said, you better know the difference between "Took Part" vs "Partaker", if not you'll be eten alive. oh well what's new anyway.... (smile).

see jbf, this is just one of the reason why we don't say the same thing. ...... hypostatic union, keep on following man, and you'll find yourself in the ditch... (smile)...lol.

PICJAG
101G The "Spiritual Saboteur"
 

Wrangler

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While the Bible is crystal clear. Jesus was God in the flesh.

Hilarious how trinitarian suppose figurative language to have literal meaning. The Word is the word of God, not Jesus.

The proper interpretation of John 1:1 is through Deuteronomy 18:15-18.

That trinitarians push belief in this 4th century evolution over salvation, over the 1C tells the story.
 

jaybird

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What scripture does it contradict by your estimation?

the Most High commanding verbatim He is not a man, He is not a son of man. plus a whole mountain of others. you have been shown these things before, you will only ignore them. you have no interest in truth or the scripture, you place manmade doctrine first and turn scripture aside to make the doctrine work. its ironic that the HU is one of many sub doctrines that was invented to support the trinity without these sub doctrines the trinity falls apart.

Which is one reason why I think that your contention that King James was a homosexual is very likely untrue.

Because if it were true, would it not have been the consensus of most people to throw it in the fire?

But even if it is true, who cares if the name of King James is on it? What matters is that it is the unadulterated word of the Lord (which it is).
Personal relationships of James VI and I - Wikipedia

there is a list of James and just a few of his homosexual relations. 99% of all academics agree he was a homosexual. one would have to be extremely bias to not admit it.

How, then, is the Bible Christian; since it is based on the Masoretic text?

Are you saying that the kjv is anti-Christian?

The kjv has been the standard for Christian doctrine for at least 400 years!

How many Christians would be surprised to learn that they were believing a Bible that is anti-Christian all these centuries!

Furthermore, I suppose that for 400 years of church history, we have had a Bible and a Christianity that is in all reality anti-Christian!
the MZ canon was a direct response to the new sect of Judaism that followed Jesus.
Jesus and the 12 quoted the LXX not the MZ. the MZ was chosen based on political opinions and not what was the best source for the words of Jesus.
James command to the translators:
support church doctrine - this means read into the text the opinions of man, if they came across anything that conflicted, ignore it.
use the bishops bible - this made up the lionshare of the KJV which means it was not a translation, it was a copy.
support church hierarchy - this means word it so church leaders, especially the king, can lord over the common people.

go to any kjv website and they should have james and his "message" (when a king sends a message its an order) to the translators. you guys go on and on how james had nothing to do with anything but its right there on any your own kjv website that he was in fact an influence on how they should translate it.
 

justbyfaith

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Personal relationships of James VI and I - Wikipedia

there is a list of James and just a few of his homosexual relations. 99% of all academics agree he was a homosexual. one would have to be extremely bias to not admit it.

Even if King James was a homosexual, this does not mean that this aspect had any effect on the way that the scriptures were translated in the kjv. For King James did not personally translate the holy scriptures but gave the project to a team of scholars; and I believe that they would have translated it according to their understanding of the Greek and Hebrew.

There was another accused of being a homosexual who had a major role in creating what we call scripture today...Paul the apostle.

Personally, I think that the accusation against Paul is bogus and that therefore, the accusation against King James is probably just as bogus.

go to any kjv website and they should have james and his "message" (when a king sends a message its an order) to the translators. you guys go on and on how james had nothing to do with anything but its right there on any your own kjv website that he was in fact an influence on how they should translate it.

And yet, the kjv still condemns homosexuality.

So, if King James told them to support the hierarchy of the church of England at that time by what they translated the kjv to be, you have yet to show how that is going to affect other doctrines in the holy scriptures.
 

justbyfaith

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the Most High commanding verbatim He is not a man, He is not a son of man. plus a whole mountain of others. you have been shown these things before, you will only ignore them. you have no interest in truth or the scripture, you place manmade doctrine first and turn scripture aside to make the doctrine work. its ironic that the HU is one of many sub doctrines that was invented to support the trinity without these sub doctrines the trinity falls apart.
So, when God said that He is not a man nor a son of man, He had not yet been incarnated; it was many centuries before the time of Jesus.

The Father truly is not a man nor a son of man. For He is a Spirit inhabiting eternity (Isaiah 57:15).

He is distinct from Himself as the same Spirit who incarnated to become a Man.

There are three who bear record in heaven (1 John 5:7 (kjv)).

The 1st Person of the Trinity is most definitely not a man or a son of man.

When God became a Man, it was a major event in human history, it changed the fact that God was not a Man; while it did not change the fact that the 1st Person of the Trinity is not a man.

This should be clear, merely when you read John 1:1-3 and John 1:14.

Most Christians, when they read that in their Bibles, come to the understanding that Jesus is God, immediately.

However, certain cults have disputed the validity of this and that is a major reason why they are cults; for every cult denies the doctrine of the Trinity in some way, shape, or form.
 

jaybird

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Even if King James was a homosexual

even if? you see this is your problem, all the evidence on planet earth says he was, and your reaction is "even if" as if you think this information is just made up. if i had a time machine, we went back and caught him in the act, you would still be there saying "its not what it looks like".

this does not mean that this aspect had any effect on the way that the scriptures were translated in the kjv. For King James did not personally translate the holy scriptures but gave the project to a team of scholars; and I believe that they would have translated it according to their understanding of the Greek and Hebrew.
it wasnt translated, it was copied from another text. about the 5th time you been told that. why is it you do not accept that?
he was a big influence like i have already explained.
saying "james didnt translate" is a very ignorant statement. no sophisticated mind would ever suggest or think such nonesense, kings would never in a million years translate anything, academics, such as translators, worked for kings, they did all the hard work.

There was another accused of being a homosexual who had a major role in creating what we call scripture today...Paul the apostle.

Personally, I think that the accusation against Paul is bogus and that therefore, the accusation against King James is probably just as bogus.
unlike Paul there is actual evidence, from contemporaries of his day all the way to current historians.



And yet, the kjv still condemns homosexuality.

So, if King James told them to support the hierarchy of the church of England at that time by what they translated the kjv to be, you have yet to show how that is going to affect other doctrines in the holy scriptures.

it makes no difference. you have a known homosexuals name on the HOLY scripture.no one is saying he made it a book on homosexuality, its the dishonor to the Lord. Holy is His Name, do you not know what that means?
do you think the Heavenly Father is pleased that a homosexuals name is on His Holy scriptures?
and you have been shown james, the homosexual, telling the them how to word the scripture so it lines up with their political agendas.