Ernest T. Bass
Well-Known Member
You need to do a word study on eis and what it actually means and its usage. It is not used to say for as in a requirement.
I have and eis means 100% in the Greek "unto" or "for" and NEVER "because". I showed in my last post that the attempt to change the meaning of the word eis to 'because' creates impossibilities. Another example: Matthew 26:28 did Christ shed His blood BECAUSE sins were already remitted or did He shed His blood FOR the remission of sins? Exact same phrase (for remission of sins) in Greek and English in Mt 26:28 as in Acts 2:38.
Baptist commentator AT Robertson had no problem understanding 'eis' means 'for' in Matthew 26:28. Yet faced with the same phrase in Acts 2:38 all of sudden he no longer is sure what "eis" means. He writes about Acts 2:38 "One will decide the use here according as he believes that baptism is essential to the remission of sins or not." He is saying one's personal theology (not the Bible, not the Greek language, not grammar), but one's personal theology should dictate what Acts 2:38 means.
(1) In Acts 2:38 repent is connected to baptize with the conjunction "and" meaning if one is baptized because his sins are already remitted then one repents because his sins are already remitted which makes no sense.
(2) if they were saved prior to verse 38 then those Jews did not know they were saved as seen by their asking Peter what they should do in v37. And Peter tells them in v40 to "save yourselves" which again makes no sense if they were already saved somewhere prior to verse 38.
According to you, if they were saved somewhere prior to verse 38, then two questions:
-Can you point to the verse to where they were saved and why were they saved at that point?
-How would they "save themselves" per v40 if already saved somewhere for some unknown reason prior to v38?
(3) In v21 Peter quotes Joel's prophecy "And it shall come to pass, that whosoever shall call on the name of the Lord shall be saved." This prophecy was fulfilled in verse 38:
v21--------call upon the name of the Lord>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>saved
v38--------repent and be baptized>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> saved/remission of sins
Since there is just one way to be saved, no alternatives, then calling on the name of the Lord means doing what the Lord said to do in repenting and submitting to baptism, Luke 6:46.
If one repents and is baptized BECAUSE he already is saved, then that must mean one calls upon the name of the Lord BECAUSE he already is saved, correct?
(4) verse 40 "Then they that gladly received his word were baptized:..."
This means those that did NOT receive Peter's gospel words were NOT baptized. Logically then, NOT being baptized is the same as NOT receiving the gospel. 2 Thessalonians 1:8 to NOT be in flaming fire one must obey the gospel of Christ. The gospel is the death burial and resurrection of Chrit 1 Corinthians 15:3-4. In baptism (Romans 6) the old man of is dies, one is buried in a water grave, one is 'raised up from' (resurrected) from that watery grace to walk in newness of life. Hence there is a death, burial and resurrection that take place in water baptism and this is how the gospel of Christ is obeyed.
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