“Before Abraham Was, I Am.”

[ThePuffyBlob]

So your concern is on this from Amigo "Thats right my friend , the LORD set you free from that bondage . Let the glorious Lord be praised my friend."

This praise unto the LORD for my salvation bothers you???

then read #16 end of story

 

[David in NJ]

then read #16 end of story

Your Post #16 is what i responded to since you made a claim against me to a Brother who has been speaking with me for some time now.

Therefore, my response to you was indeed using your own logic.

Today, you can move on and walk in Peace here - your choice.

 

[ThePuffyBlob]

Your Post #16 is what i responded to since you made a claim against me to a Brother who has been speaking with me for some time now.

oh it was you
then everything falls into place and i am in the wrong from the very beginning of our conversation

hopefully you can forgive me
sorry

 

[David in NJ]

oh it was you
then everything falls into place and i am in the wrong from the very beginning of our conversation

hopefully you can forgive me
sorry

Of course my friend as if it never happened - Peace

 

[Johann]

In Ex. 3:14 God identified Himself to Moses as “I AM THAT I AM” AND "I AM’; and in John 8:58 Jesus said, “Before Abraham was I am.” Some try to draw the conclusion that Jesus was claiming to be the God of the Old Testament, because they both use the same expression “I am.” But the Apostle Paul also used the same expression in 1 Cor. 15:10: “By the grace of God I am what I am.” Obviously this does not prove that the Apostle Paul and Jehovah God are one and the same person! When God in Ex. 3:14 stated His name as “I am who I am” and “I am,” He was indicating, not His appellation, but His character and nature. Similarly, the Apostle Paul was indicating his character when he said, “By the grace of God I am what I am.”

And similarly, Jesus was indicating His nature when He said, “Before Abraham was, I am.” Jesus here affirmed that He had existed before Abraham and had ever since continued to exist. Please notice the expression “I am”—present tense. Why this? It is used to express that a non-terminated existence, viz., that of Jesus, which He as the Logos had before Abraham lived, had never up to the time of His speaking in this text come to an end, which proves that when the Logos became flesh (John 1:14), He did not die while undergoing the transfer from a spirit plane to the human plane of existence. Without dying, the same person was transferred from one nature to the other (2 Cor. 8:9; Phil. 2:6, 7) and lived continuously during the transfer. Jesus in John 8:58 was not trying to prove that He and His Father were one and the same person. To have done so would have been to deny God’s Word and His own teachings in general.

Jesus is eternal ("In the beginning was the Word," John 1:1)
Jesus the Son is distinct from God the Father ("the Word was with God," John 1:1, 2)
Jesus is God ("the Word was God," John 1:1)
Jesus is the Creator ("All things were made through him," John 1:3, 9)
Jesus is the giver of life ("In him was life," John 1:4)
Jesus is the ultimate value and guide ("the life was the light of men," John 1:4-5)
Jesus has a name ("in his name," John 1:12)
Jesus became incarnate ("the Word became flesh," John 1:14)
Jesus came to live upon the earth ("and dwelt among us," John 1:14)
And Jesus is the only Son from the Father, full of grace and truth (John 1:14)



So, John's Logos is personal. He is God, the Creator, the giver of life, the ultimate value and guide, the only Son from the Father, full of grace and truth, who came to live upon this very earth. In the fullness of time, Jesus died, but he resurrected up from the dead to the right hand of God the Father and rules over his kingdom. At the consummation of all things, he will personally come again and take his children to their eternal home.

God is not just a concept. He is a personal Being. Do you know him?
Blessings
J.
https://download1.thirdmill.org/en/750main64b/TheApostlesCreed.Forum3.English.mp4