6 Prophecies that are undergoing fulfillment today 1

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Robert Gwin

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Prophecy 1. Earthquakes
“There will be great earthquakes.”—LUKE 21:11.

WHAT DO THE FACTS SHOW? When a magnitude 7.0 earthquake struck Haiti in January 2010, more than 300,000 people were killed. An additional 1.3 million were rendered homeless in an instant. Although extreme, the quake in Haiti was not an isolated event. At least 18 major earthquakes occurred earth wide between April 2009 and April 2010.

WHAT IS A COMMON OBJECTION? We are not experiencing more earthquakes; because of modern technology, we are just more aware of them than people were in the past.

IS THAT OBJECTION VALID? Consider this fact: The Bible does not emphasize the number of earthquakes during the last days. However, it does say that “great earthquakes” will occur “in one place after another,” making them one of the notable features of this momentous period of history.—Mark 13:8; Luke 21:11.

WHAT DO YOU THINK? Are we seeing great earthquakes, just as the Bible foretold?
Earthquakes alone may not seem to be conclusive evidence that we are living in the last days. Yet, they are only one prophecy that is being fulfilled. Consider a second, adding Thursday
 

Jay Ross

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Matt. 28:2: - 2 And behold, there was a great earthquake; for an angel of the Lord descended from heaven, and came and rolled back the stone from the door, and sat on it.​

The Greek word "seismos" found in the above verse has the Greek Root Word G:4578 embedded within it. From the PC Study Bible program, the Strong Definition provided gives this information: -

upload_2022-2-24_5-22-17.png

In all the verses above, I have come to the understanding that the translators have used the wrong English word to translate "seismos" in all of the verses where it is found in the New Testament listed above. How does an angel cause an "earthquake" on this occasion but not on the other occasions where an angel has come down from heaven to complete a task. It is my contention that the appearance of an angel coming down from heaven would have caused turmoil and fear among the solders guarding the tomb. Like wise in Matt. 8:24 the same Greek word is translated as "tempest" whereas the verse is clearly speaking about the turmoil in the wave.

Matt. 8:24: - 24 And suddenly a great tempest arose on the sea, so that the boat was covered with the waves.​

The disciples were not afraid of the wind, i.e. the tempest, but they were afraid of the "turmoil" in the sea, caused by the wind, because of the standing waves that were being formed through the combining of the reflected waves that could rise up and swamp the boat and cause it to sink. Any person who crosses a bar in huge seas would be aware of this problem when attempting to cross the bar as the reflected wave going back out to sea could cause a standing wave that could swamp the boat if the boat happened to be where the much higher standing wave was created. The standing wave seems to come out of nowhere.

In all of the above verses where G:4578 is found, the better English word that should have been used in those verse in the English word "turmoil" and the corresponding variation in keeping with the context of the respective verses.

Rev. 16:17-21 speaks twice of two periods of turmoil occurring, i.e. WW1 and WW2, and provides three confirmations of events that occurred during the 20th centaury to validate the translation of "seismos" in verse 18 as turmoil.

The example of Luke. 21:11 given in the OP is speak of great turmoil occurring such that the verse's English paraphrase reads better if translated in this manner: -

Luke. 21:11: - 11 And there will be great turmoil in various places, and famines and pestilences; and there will be fearful sights and great signs from heaven.​

This paraphrase certainly changes the signs that we should be looking for to see the fulfilment of the respective prophecies associated with the Greek words listed above associated with G:4578.

Shalom
 

Robert Gwin

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Matt. 28:2: - 2 And behold, there was a great earthquake; for an angel of the Lord descended from heaven, and came and rolled back the stone from the door, and sat on it.​

The Greek word "seismos" found in the above verse has the Greek Root Word G:4578 embedded within it. From the PC Study Bible program, the Strong Definition provided gives this information: -

View attachment 20752

In all the verses above, I have come to the understanding that the translators have used the wrong English word to translate "seismos" in all of the verses where it is found in the New Testament listed above. How does an angel cause an "earthquake" on this occasion but not on the other occasions where an angel has come down from heaven to complete a task. It is my contention that the appearance of an angel coming down from heaven would have caused turmoil and fear among the solders guarding the tomb. Like wise in Matt. 8:24 the same Greek word is translated as "tempest" whereas the verse is clearly speaking about the turmoil in the wave.

Matt. 8:24: - 24 And suddenly a great tempest arose on the sea, so that the boat was covered with the waves.​

The disciples were not afraid of the wind, i.e. the tempest, but they were afraid of the "turmoil" in the sea, caused by the wind, because of the standing waves that were being formed through the combining of the reflected waves that could rise up and swamp the boat and cause it to sink. Any person who crosses a bar in huge seas would be aware of this problem when attempting to cross the bar as the reflected wave going back out to sea could cause a standing wave that could swamp the boat if the boat happened to be where the much higher standing wave was created. The standing wave seems to come out of nowhere.

In all of the above verses where G:4578 is found, the better English word that should have been used in those verse in the English word "turmoil" and the corresponding variation in keeping with the context of the respective verses.

Rev. 16:17-21 speaks twice of two periods of turmoil occurring, i.e. WW1 and WW2, and provides three confirmations of events that occurred during the 20th centaury to validate the translation of "seismos" in verse 18 as turmoil.

The example of Luke. 21:11 given in the OP is speak of great turmoil occurring such that the verse's English paraphrase reads better if translated in this manner: -

Luke. 21:11: - 11 And there will be great turmoil in various places, and famines and pestilences; and there will be fearful sights and great signs from heaven.​

This paraphrase certainly changes the signs that we should be looking for to see the fulfilment of the respective prophecies associated with the Greek words listed above associated with G:4578.

Shalom

Thanks for the info sir, 5 more to come.
 

Jay Ross

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Thanks for the info sir, 5 more to come.

Ah Robert! Do not blow off what I have posted as if it is of no consequence. The turmoil seen through history and the turmoil also in our future is the fulfilment of prophecy. Earthquakes in and of themselves are not the fulfilment of prophecies nor are they a sign of prophecy.

What I was suggesting in my post above is that Matt. 28:2 should read as: -

Matt. 28:2: - 2 And behold, there was a great earthquake/great turmoil; for an angel of the Lord descended from heaven, and came and rolled back the stone from the door, and sat on it.​

The turmoil was among the guard, and any other people who might have been looking on. There will be no "great earthquakes" that will be a sign of fulfilment of impeding prophecy as you have claimed.

Now if you are accepting that you have the first claimed fulfilment of prophecy wrong, because you are looking for the wrong sign, then why continue with the next five since I have suggested that you have this wrong to begin with in your list.
 

ScottA

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WHAT DO YOU THINK? Are we seeing great earthquakes, just as the Bible foretold?
Earthquakes alone may not seem to be conclusive evidence that we are living in the last days. Yet, they are only one prophecy that is being fulfilled. Consider a second, adding Thursday
Yes...and No.

Most misunderstand the context/timeframe. Jesus gave the timeframe and context, saying "the beginning of sorrows."

So...when was/is the beginning of sorrows? Did Jesus have sorrows? David? Moses? How about Adam, did Adam have sorrows? Just when did such sorrows begin?

The "beginning of sorrows"...was in the beginning. But as is usual, men thought only of things yet to come; and others seeing what they thought fit the description, saw dates come and go without filling their expectations; while still others put it all off to a growing cataclysmic image of grandeur snowballing to the distant future...while dismissing those same things that fit the description witnessed in their own time.

But why did Jesus refer to those events as the "beginning" of sorrows?

Because...there is also an "end" of sorrows:

Therefore they shall come and sing in the height of Zion, Streaming to the goodness of the Lord— For wheat and new wine and oil, For the young of the flock and the herd; Their souls shall be like a well-watered garden, And they shall sorrow no more at all. Jeremiah 31:12

And God will wipe away every tear from their eyes; there shall be no more death, nor sorrow, nor crying. There shall be no more pain, for the former things have passed away.” Revelation 21:4

But, yes, "They do not know nor understand; For He has shut their eyes, so that they cannot see, And their hearts, so that they cannot understand."
 
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Robert Gwin

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Ah Robert! Do not blow off what I have posted as if it is of no consequence. The turmoil seen through history and the turmoil also in our future is the fulfilment of prophecy. Earthquakes in and of themselves are not the fulfilment of prophecies nor are they a sign of prophecy.

What I was suggesting in my post above is that Matt. 28:2 should read as: -

Matt. 28:2: - 2 And behold, there was a great earthquake/great turmoil; for an angel of the Lord descended from heaven, and came and rolled back the stone from the door, and sat on it.​

The turmoil was among the guard, and any other people who might have been looking on. There will be no "great earthquakes" that will be a sign of fulfilment of impeding prophecy as you have claimed.

Now if you are accepting that you have the first claimed fulfilment of prophecy wrong, because you are looking for the wrong sign, then why continue with the next five since I have suggested that you have this wrong to begin with in your list.

Right or wrong is the way you take it Jay. We teach that it is properly translated earthquake. The fact shows that earthquakes during this period of the last days have taken a much larger percentage of lives than in previous times. Stay tuned however sir, as that was simply the first, today I will be posting the 3rd. Keep in mind everything is open to debate, what I say may be truth or a lie, I am far from perfect. You have to make the choice yourself as to the accuracy of what I teach for sure.
 

Robert Gwin

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Yes...and No.

Most misunderstand the context/timeframe. Jesus gave the timeframe and context, saying "the beginning of sorrows."

So...when was/is the beginning of sorrows? Did Jesus have sorrows? David? Moses? How about Adam, did Adam have sorrows? Just when did such sorrows begin?

The "beginning of sorrows"...was in the beginning. But as is usual, men thought only of things yet to come; and others seeing what they thought fit the description, saw dates come and go without filling their expectations; while still others put it all off to a growing cataclysmic image of grandeur snowballing to the distant future...while dismissing those same things that fit the description witnessed in their own time.

But why did Jesus refer to those events as the "beginning" of sorrows?

Because...there is also an "end" of sorrows:

Therefore they shall come and sing in the height of Zion, Streaming to the goodness of the Lord— For wheat and new wine and oil, For the young of the flock and the herd; Their souls shall be like a well-watered garden, And they shall sorrow no more at all. Jeremiah 31:12

And God will wipe away every tear from their eyes; there shall be no more death, nor sorrow, nor crying. There shall be no more pain, for the former things have passed away.” Revelation 21:4

But, yes, "They do not know nor understand; For He has shut their eyes, so that they cannot see, And their hearts, so that they cannot understand."

This particular time Jesus was referring to was in relation to the topic he was speaking about Scott. He was giving the signs of his enthronement, and the sign of his presence until his return sir. A period that Christians refer to as the last days.
 

Jay Ross

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Right or wrong is the way you take it Jay. We teach that it is properly translated earthquake. The fact shows that earthquakes during this period of the last days have taken a much larger percentage of lives than in previous times. Stay tuned however sir, as that was simply the first, today I will be posting the 3rd. Keep in mind everything is open to debate, what I say may be truth or a lie, I am far from perfect. You have to make the choice yourself as to the accuracy of what I teach for sure.

Then if it is properly translated, then what you are saying is that you can have an earthquake in water and in the air. In the case of Jesus calming the waves in the Lake of Galilee it is translated as "tempest," because Jesus stayed the winds which where cause the waves, and because of reflections of the wind generated waves of the shoreline, the standing waves, that can be explained by wave theory, often swamp boats and cause the boats to sink. If this is the case then the same Greek word should be translated in the same way in every case it is found in the NT.

I once blindly accepted that "seismos" should be understood as "earthquake,' but there is another Greek word used to describe an earthquake and that root word is G:4579 and its meaning is "shake."

upload_2022-2-26_3-13-5.png

Another Greek Root word that is used to describe something being shaken is G:4531: -

upload_2022-2-26_3-26-14.png

The description of the "earthquake" which occurred when Christ died on the cross, is given by the phrase in Matt. 27:51 as, "and the earth did quake/shake," such that the verses around this should read as: -


Matt. 27:50-54: - 50 And Jesus cried out again with a loud voice, and yielded up His spirit.

51 Then, behold, the veil of the temple was torn in two from top to bottom; and the earth quaked/did shake, and the rocks were split, 52 and the graves were opened; and many bodies of the saints who had fallen asleep were raised; 53 and coming out of the graves after His resurrection, they went into the holy city and appeared to many.

54 So when the centurion and those with him, who were guarding Jesus, saw the earthquake/turmoil and the things that had happened, they feared greatly, saying, "Truly this was the Son of God!"​

So often we are accepting of people who have letters, but all that they letters indicate is that they can be programmed to accept whatever it is that they have been taught, whether or not it is true. This is the case with our English translations, as well as with all the other language translations. we blindly accept that they have been "correctly translated," and that the translations are not in any need to be corrected because of the contextual errors that have become embedded within the respective translations.

We accept the lie presented because as paupers, we never take the time to ponder our navel and reflect on what is presented as "God's truth" by other people.

Paul tells us that we need to renew our minds and to then put on the refurbished personhood that God has always intended us to have.

If we blindly accept the "lies" in our translated bibles, the question that we should contemplate is "Were do the lies end with respect to our relationship with God?"

Shalom
 

ScottA

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This particular time Jesus was referring to was in relation to the topic he was speaking about Scott. He was giving the signs of his enthronement, and the sign of his presence until his return sir. A period that Christians refer to as the last days.
That is certainly the way it would appear. However, that would mean that this matter of God is not "the same yesterday, today, and forever." Except that it is...and that is what I was explaining.

Granted, removing the time limitations to all truth, does indeed require a renewing of your mind. But that is what is called for, so I make no excuse, but am prepared to state it as it is from God's perspective. I did.

Strange how we tend to cling to the captivities of this world.​
 
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Robert Gwin

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That is certainly the way it would appear. However, that would mean that this matter of God is not "the same yesterday, today, and forever." Except that it is...and that is what I was explaining.

Granted, removing the time limitations to all truth, does indeed require a renewing of your mind. But that is what is called for, so I make no excuse, but am prepared to state it as it is from God's perspective. I did.

Strange how we tend to cling to the captivities of this world.​

Perfect individuals are unchanging Scott, they will live within guidelines of God's law eternally. That is what is meant by the statement of same always. One day all humans that are alive, will be unchanging as well.