There is no Biblical basis for these statements. None. Show me anywhere in the Bible where "the rcc" is mentioned. To claim that the rcc wrote the New Testament is nonsense. Were is the proof that Matthew, Mark, Luke, John, Paul, Peter, or any of the other NT authors were Catholics?
First, theefaith should not use "rcc" to denote all Catholics. It has been repeatedly explained why "rcc" is inaccurate.
Second, the proof the first Christians were Catholic in practice and belief is found in the writings of the earliest Christians, as well as the archeological evidence found in the ancient Roman catacombs dating from the 1st century,
you blindly reject both.
Third, the thread title is
6 Rituals In Christianity, which you have successfully
derailed with stupid flaming zingers.
QUESTION: CATHOLIC: Where did the word originate?
ANSWER: It comes from the Greek word Katholikos, which was later Latinized into Catholicus.
QUESTION: What is the meaning of the word?
ANSWER: It means 'Universal', which in itself means, 'of or relating to, or affecting the entire world and ALL peoples therein'. It means, ALL encompassing, comprehensibly broad, general, and containing
ALL that is necessary. In summation, it means
ALL people in
ALL places, having
ALL that is necessary, and for
ALL time.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
QUESTION: But is it Biblical?
ANSWER: Yes it is. It is in Matthew 28:19-20, "Go, therefore and make disciples of
ALL nations...teaching them to observe
ALL that I have commanded you; And behold, I am with you
ALL days, even unto the consummation of the world." That is a statement of Universality, Kataholis, Katholicos, Catholicus, Catholic.
Romans 1:8
2605 [e] καταγγέλλεται
katangelletai is being proclaimed
V-PIM/P-3S
1722 [e] ἐν
en in
Prep
3650 [e] ὅλῳ
holō all
Adj-DMS
Romans 1:8 Greek Text Analysis
3588 [e] τῷ
tō the
Art-DMS
2889 [e] κόσμῳ.
kosmō world.
N-DMS
Acts 26:21-23
Keep in mind that English as a language did not exist for many centuries after the Bible was written. Pontification is easy, research is hard.
Q. I have heard that the word 'Catholic' did not come into use for hundreds of years after Jesus Christ founded His Church.
A. Not true. The first recorded use of the word that I could find, is in St. Ignatius of Antioch's letter to the Smyrneans, paragraph 8, of 106 A.D., "Where the Bishop appears, there let the people be, just as where Jesus Christ is, there is the Catholic Church." Undoubtedly the word was in use
before the time of this writing.
Q. Some say the Catholic Church ended with Constantine (285-337), with the "Edict of Milan" which he issued in 313, which allowed the Church to practice openly. Others say that is when the Church began. Who is right?
A. Neither is right. The Catholic Church is the true Church founded by Jesus Christ and He guaranteed its perpetuality, Matthew 28:20, and its unfaltering truth, 1Timothy 3:15. Now if either of the arguments in the question were true, then don't you think the Church Fathers would have mentioned it somewhere? Instead, the Church Fathers mention the Catholic Church by Name in hundreds of their writings and spanning many centuries.
Documented proof for example:
Ignatius, Letter to the Smyrneans 106AD;
Martyrdom of St. Polycarp 155AD;
Clement of Alexandria, Stromateis 202AD;
Cyprian, Unity of the Catholic Church 251AD;
Cyprian, Letter to Florentius, 254AD
"Christian is my name, and Catholic my surname. The one designates me, while the other makes me specific. Thus am I attested and set apart... When we are called Catholics it is by this appellation that our people are kept apart from any heretical name."
Saint Pacian of Barcelona, Letter to Sympronian, 375 A.D.
That quote does not apply to Protestants because there were no Protestants in 375 A.D.
+++
Dr. Carroll, author of the Baptist church history entitled “The Trail of Blood,” makes the claim that Constantine called a council in 313 AD, the same year he issued the Edict of Milan, and this council first formed the hierarchy of the Catholic Church. This theory breaks down, though, when one begins to read the history books and discovers that
no Church council was held in 313.
But the main problem with all of these theories is that, if they were true, one would expect to be able to find all of the doctrines that are specifically “Catholic” coming about only after the “invention” of the Catholic Church. Whatever year one proposes as the beginning of Catholicism, one should expect to see none of these Catholic doctrines before it. Even a cursory reading of the Church Fathers from the first, second, and third centuries and archeological evidence found in the ancient Roman catacombs dating from the 1st century
shows that this is not the case.
Your headless chicken comment
"Show me anywhere in the Bible where "the rcc" is mentioned. To claim that the rcc wrote the New Testament is nonsense." collapses in a heap. The concept and the term "Catholic" has been demonstrated as thoroughly biblical. Show me "Baptist Church" in the Bible. Show me "Non-denominational" in the Bible. Show me the name of your church in the Bible, if you even have one.
Now lets get back to the topic of rituals, shall we?