Rom. 7:3-4 - "So then if, while her husband liveth, she be married to another man, she shall be called an adulteress: but if her husband be dead, she is free from that law; so that she is no adulteress, though she be married to another man. 4 Wherefore, my brethren, ye also are become dead to the law by the body of Christ; that ye should be married (belong) to another, even to him who is raised from the dead, that we should bring forth fruit unto God."
I believe the word "married" here is a mistranslation. The Greek is "ginomai" G1096. This word is used 100's of times in the NT and this scripture is the ONLY place it is translated as "married". All the other times the word for "married" is used it's G1060 (gameo). The other most common translation of this passage is the phrase "belong to" which has a different connotation than "married". This is the first time I've heard your conclusion. Most others erroneously consider Israel to be the wife of the Father and the church to be the wife of the Son thus creating an eternal separation which is contrary to everything that's in God's plan, imo.
I don't believe any "divorce" was finalized. I believe it was used more as a threat then a reality because in the next chapter God pleads with Israel to return to Him. I don't think God contradicts Himself so the whole reason for the Book of Hosea is to show how forgiving God can be towards an adulterous wife. You also need to realize that when God uses the phrases married, wife, etc. regarding Israel it is not a reality, it is done so as an allegory, imo., showing how united they should be. It's all a picture of the intimate closeness that God desires with His creation. I'm sorry but the reason you're offering for Christ's death on the cross isn't a realistic picture of the truth f scripture at all, imo.
