With John 20:17 saying the God of Jesus and his brothers is the Father, then it follows logically that when there is a mention of God either by Jesus or the disciples that they are referring to the Father.
Remember, Jeremiah refered to God as "the God of all flesh", and when Jesus took on flesh, He took on that.
But you still have to deal with the various places such as "before Abraham was, I am", that is, before Abraham did exist in the past, I do exist in the present. That's the wording and grammar of the passage. A real mind-bender, huh! He's claiming a present existence before Abraham's historical existence. Something only someone who is not bound to this space-time continuum can say. Something only an eternal being can say. Jesus said it, and He spoke truth, as always.
Philippians 2:5-8 KJV
5) Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus:
6) Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:
7) But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:
8) And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross.
He humbled Himself . . . from what? Was He proud? Or was He transcendant?
He became obedient . . . from what? Was He disobedient? Or Sovereign?
He was in the form of God . . . transcendant . . . sovereign . . . YHWH.
Philippians 2:10-11 KJV
10) That at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth;
11) And that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.
Do you seriously think that Paul would appropriate Isaiah's words applied to YHWH and apply them to Jesus, if they are not the same One? I don't, myself.
Much love!