Acts 2:38 has been abandoned by Christianity

[CadyandZoe]

I agree, Baptism in the name of Jesus means to be immersed in the teaching of...(but not strictly/only).

Now, within the "teaching of Jesus Christ" - water baptism is preached...

Acts 8:30 And Philip ran thither to him, and heard him read the prophet Esaias, and said, Understandest thou what thou readest?
Acts 8:31 And he said, How can I, except some man should guide me? And he desired Philip that he would come up and sit with him.
Acts 8:35 Then Philip opened his mouth, and began at the same scripture, and preached unto him Jesus.
Acts 8:36 And as they went on their way, they came unto a certain water: and the eunuch said, See, here is water; what doth hinder me to be baptized?

Note: That verse does not say, behold here is water; what doth hinder me to be to be immersed in the teaching of?

Note: It was the Eunuch's idea to be baptized, not Philipp's. This is another bit of evidence that baptism wasn't unique to Christianity and the meaning was commonly understood. The Eunuch didn't ask for baptism because that is what Jesus taught. He asked for baptism because that was the commonly understood way to become a disciple of someone.

The question is, why is water baptism so important?...
Jesus said, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God. (John 3:5)

Jesus isn't talking about water baptism here. His comparison is between two ways to be born: 1) naturally and 2) supernaturally. Being born of water is natural birth; being born of the spirit is supernatural birth.

 

[CadyandZoe]

That is a classic seminarian white washing of scripture.

Romans 6 is real, not a metaphor.

You think it says this...

6 What shall we say then? Shall we continue in METAPHORIC sin, that METAPHORIC grace may abound?

2 God forbid. How shall we, that are METAPHORICALLY dead to METAPHORIC sin, live any longer therein?

3 Know ye not, that so many of us as were METAPHORICALLY baptized into Jesus Christ were METAPHORICALLY baptized into his METAPHORIC death?

4 Therefore we are METAPHORICALLY buried with him by METAPHORIC baptism into METAPHORIC death: that like as Christ was METAPHORICALLY raised up from the dead by the glory of the Father, even so we also should METAPHORICALLY walk in newness of life.

5 For if we have been METAPHORICALLY planted together in the likeness of his METAPHORIC death, we shall be also in the likeness of his METAPHORIC resurrection:...


You seminary folks are silly.

Is the making of strawmen your hobby?

 

[CadyandZoe]

Both metaphor and hyperbole are akin to lying in saying something that is strictly speaking false (i.e., exhibits no world–word fit) and thus have deceptive potential. ... Depending on the forms and contexts chosen, the distinction between hyperbole/metaphor and lying might be blurred or sharpened.

Lying, Metaphor, and Hyperbole - Oxford Handbooks
https://www.oxfordhandbooks.com › vie

I was going to respond to your previous post with a fuller explanation but if you think that metaphor is akin to lying, then I can't help you.

 

[user]

Note: It was the Eunuch's idea to be baptized, not Philipp's. This is another bit of evidence that baptism wasn't unique to Christianity and the meaning was commonly understood. The Eunuch didn't ask for baptism because that is what Jesus taught. He asked for baptism because that was the commonly understood way to become a disciple of someone.

Here, Paul was sent to Ananias for a specific reason...
Ananias says to Paul, why tarriest thou? arise, and be baptized, and wash away thy sins, calling on the name of the Lord.

Jesus isn't talking about water baptism here. His comparison is between two ways to be born: 1) naturally and 2) supernaturally. Being born of water is natural birth; being born of the spirit is supernatural birth.

Lets have a look...

John 3:5 Jesus said, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water(amniotic fluid) and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.

Acts 8:36 And as they went on their way, they came unto a certain water: and the eunuch said, See, here is water(amniotic fluid); what doth hinder me to be baptized?

Matthew 3:16 And Jesus, when he was baptized, went up straightway out of the water(amniotic fluid): and, lo, the heavens were opened unto him, and he saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove, and lighting upon him:

 

[fellow]

Here, Paul was sent to Ananias for a specific reason...
Ananias says to Paul, why tarriest thou? arise, and be baptized, and wash away thy sins, calling on the name of the Lord.

John 3:5 Jesus said, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water(amniotic fluid) and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.

Acts 8:36 And as they went on their way, they came unto a certain water: and the eunuch said, See, here is water(amniotic fluid); what doth hinder me to be baptized?

Matthew 3:16 And Jesus, when he was baptized, went up straightway out of the water(amniotic fluid): and, lo, the heavens were opened unto him, and he saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove, and lighting upon him:

Mat 3:16 And Jesus, when he was baptized, went up straightway out of the water: and, lo, the heavens were opened unto him, and he saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove, and lighting upon him:

Is Jesus setting an example or was he the only one who needed to be cleansed?

 

[GRACE ambassador]

Is Jesus setting an example or was he the only one who needed to be cleansed?

IF water baptism is "For the remission of sin," why would JESUS "have to be cleansed"?
"...HE Knew NO sin..." (2 Corinthians 5 : 21 KJB!)?

 

[fellow]

IF water baptism is "For the remission of sin," why would JESUS "have to be cleansed"?
"...HE Knew NO sin..." (2 Corinthians 5 : 21 KJB!)?

Jesus was baptized by John. It was symbolic for us to see and do.

 

[Truther]

I was going to respond to your previous post with a fuller explanation but if you think that metaphor is akin to lying, then I can't help you.

Yes, the term metaphor is a type of a lie.

When we tell the world that Jesus spoke metaphorically(instead of saying he signified things), they conclude that we are saying Jesus was a white lie creator.

"Metaphor' is a horrible description that we use.

 

[Truther]

IF water baptism is "For the remission of sin," why would JESUS "have to be cleansed"?
"...HE Knew NO sin..." (2 Corinthians 5 : 21 KJB!)?

Jesus was specifically baptized to fulfill all righteousness....fulfill the brazen laver in the tabernacle.

 

[CadyandZoe]

Yes, the term metaphor is a type of a lie.

When we tell the world that Jesus spoke metaphorically(instead of saying he signified things), they conclude that we are saying Jesus was a white lie creator.

"Metaphor' is a horrible description that we use.

No, a metaphor is not a lie. The Bible is filled with metaphors. Take for example the famous Psalm which begins, ""The Lord is my shepherd . . ." David is drawing an analogy between his relationship with God and a sheep's relationship to the shepherd. A shepherd is to his sheep as God is to David.

The following list represents a small sample of the metaphors that Jesus spoke,

• “The day of the Lord will come like a thief in the night.” ...
• "I am the bread of life." ...
• “I am the way and the truth and the light.” ...
• “The kingdom of heaven is like treasure hidden in a field.” ...
• "You are the salt of the earth."

We use metaphors all the time in everyday life and I suspect you use them too, even if you don't know what they are called.

 

[Truther]

No, a metaphor is not a lie. The Bible is filled with metaphors. Take for example the famous Psalm which begins, ""The Lord is my shepherd . . ." David is drawing an analogy between his relationship with God and a sheep's relationship to the shepherd. A shepherd is to his sheep as God is to David.

The following list represents a small sample of the metaphors that Jesus spoke,

• “The day of the Lord will come like a thief in the night.” ...
• "I am the bread of life." ...
• “I am the way and the truth and the light.” ...
• “The kingdom of heaven is like treasure hidden in a field.” ...
• "You are the salt of the earth."

We use metaphors all the time in everyday life and I suspect you use them too, even if you don't know what they are called.

No. Jesus used comparisons, not metaphors.

Also, the comparison is akin to a sign.

A sign is not a metaphor.

 

[amigo de christo]

Mat 3:16 And Jesus, when he was baptized, went up straightway out of the water: and, lo, the heavens were opened unto him, and he saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove, and lighting upon him:

Is Jesus setting an example or was he the only one who needed to be cleansed?

JESUS was setting the example . BUT he had no need to be cleansed . And that i take to my grave .
HE was clean . The WORD IS CLEAN . A better thing
to do would be to point at the example of peter at the house of cornelious .
Notice the HOLY GHOST had fallen on them , for even the jews with peter heard them speak with the same tongues .
BUT do take note , PETER STILL ASKED FOR WATER so as these could be water baptized .
I say we keep THEIR example . IF JESUS and the apostles did so , though Jesus himself baptized not , but his desciples
AND if even after His ressurection , they all did this . THEN WE DO IT . That is as far as the conversation needs to GO .
ITS known as this , IF JESUS taught anything , we do it . IF the apostels did it and taught it , WE do it .
I keep it real simple . I see it as a child would . HEY If JESUS said to do we do , if HE said not to do we do not do .
Same goes for the apostels , WHO TRULY DID HAVE THE SPIRIT . SO that would include being BAPTIZED by water .

 

[Norine J Williams]

Yes, baptized in the name of Jesus Christ to be precise.

 

[CadyandZoe]

No. Jesus used comparisons, not metaphors.

I can't believe I'm having an argument over the definition of "metaphor". But if you prefer "comparison", then Paul was drawing a comparison, in Romans 6, not speaking literally.

 

[Norine J Williams]

This is not true or Hebrews 9:22 and I John 1:7 would be a lie.

Hebrews 9:22 says "Without blood there is no remission" so how could water baptism "remit sins" as Peter stated in Acts 2:38?

I John 1:7 also contradicts what Peter said in Acts 2:38 saying "...the blood of His Son Jesus Christ cleanses us from all sins" so how could a water baptism "cleanse us from all sins" as Peter stated in Acts 2:38 when he said "for the remission of sins?"

One thing people have to remember "Scripture witnesses other Scriptures and don't contradict" but Acts 2:38 contradicts these two Scriptures and more!

When mankind disobeys God, He makes you pay! In the beginning when Adam and Eve disobeyed God, God cursed them and "the serpent" (Genesis 3:14-19).

Now look at Peter when Jesus said Holy Spirit baptism in Acts 1:5 but Peter said water in Acts 2:38 even claiming water "remit sins." Peter "Continued in the apostles' doctrine" (Acts 2:42) until "he was rehearsing the matter" (Acts 11:4) when "THEN he REMEMBERED what Jesus said in Acts 1:5 but not until Acts 11:15-17 which NULLIFIED ALL WATER BAPTISMS throughout the Book of Acts because JESUS RULES Who said Holy Spirit baptism in Acts 1:5!

However Paul continued to water baptize until he had a "Night Vision" (Acts 18:9-10) in which Jesus revealed (Galatians 1:12) "the way of God more perfectly" (Acts 18:26) for baptism rather than a water baptism (Acts 18:25) which put THE CHURCH "with one accord" (Acts 1:14).

Unfortunately, "How can you say, "We are wise, for we have the law of the LORD," when actually the lying pen of the scribes has handled it falsely?" (Jeremiah 8:8)!

Consequently, even after Scripture tells us Paul had a "Night Vision" (Acts 18:9-10) in which Jesus revealed (Galatians 1:12) "the way of God more perfectly" (Acts 18:26) for baptism rather than a water baptism (Acts 18:25), the "LYING SCRIBES" (Jeremiah 8:8) entwined THE LIE of another water baptism in Acts 19:5 which makes TWO baptisms although Ephesians 4:5 says "ONE baptism" with Acts 10:44 showing Holy Spirit baptism is one baptism and Acts 10:47 showing water baptism is another baptism that are TWO separate events.

LORD HAVE MERCY ON US ALL!

"How can you say, "We are wise, for we have the law of the LORD," when actually the lying pen of the scribes has handled it falsely?" (Jeremiah 8:8)!

 

[Norine J Williams]

JESUS was setting the example . BUT he had no need to be cleansed . And that i take to my grave .
HE was clean . The WORD IS CLEAN . A better thing
to do would be to point at the example of peter at the house of cornelious .
Notice the HOLY GHOST had fallen on them , for even the jews with peter heard them speak with the same tongues .
BUT do take note , PETER STILL ASKED FOR WATER so as these could be water baptized .
I say we keep THEIR example . IF JESUS and the apostles did so , though Jesus himself baptized not , but his desciples
AND if even after His ressurection , they all did this . THEN WE DO IT . That is as far as the conversation needs to GO .
ITS known as this , IF JESUS taught anything , we do it . IF the apostels did it and taught it , WE do it .
I keep it real simple . I see it as a child would . HEY If JESUS said to do we do , if HE said not to do we do not do .
Same goes for the apostels , WHO TRULY DID HAVE THE SPIRIT . SO that would include being BAPTIZED by water .

Jesus WAS NOT "setting an example" by being water baptized.

Jesus said in John 13:15 "I have given you AN EXAMPLE to do as I have done unto you" but John 4:2 says "JESUS NEVER WATER BAPTIZED ANYONE" therefore He DID NOT give us "an example."

As far as "the dove" is concerned, the Holy Spirit was a sign of God's approval of Jesus "Fulfilling all righteousness" (Matthew 3:15) since "the law is righteous" (Romans 7:12) of what GOD has spoken under the law through the Prophets Isaiah (40:3) and Malachi (3:1) and NOT being water baptized with the definition of John's baptism which was one of "REPENTANCE" administered to people under the law who "BELIEVED JESUS WAS COMING" (Acts 19:4).

Did Jesus need to "repent" (Hebrews 4:15)?

Did He not know that He had come?

Since at the house of Cornelius "the Holy Ghost fell on them as Peter began to speak" (Acts 10:44) which was one baptism and Peter said "Here is water what forbid these from being baptized" (Acts 10:47) that was TWO separate events and TWO baptisms which defies Ephesians 4:5 "ONE baptism."

Which is why as Peter "was rehearsing the matter" (Acts 11:4) "THEN Peter REMEMBERED..." (Acts 11:15-16) Jesus said Holy Spirit baptism in Acts 1:5) and repeated what Jesus said in Acts 1:5, VERBATIM, as to what he didn't REMEMBER. In so much as Peter repented saying "What was I that I could withstand GOD?" (Acts 11:17).

As you said "That is as far as the conversation needs to GO."

Jesus wouldn't have said "ONE baptism" through Paul (Galatians 1:12) in Ephesians 4:5 then ADD another in Matthew 28:19 causing us to "Worship with men's hands" (Acts 17:25).

"GOD is not the author of confusion" (I Corinthians 14:33) but "LYING SCRIBES" are (Jeremiah 8:8)!

"How can you say, "We are wise, for we have the law of the LORD," when actually the lying pen of the scribes has handled it falsely?" (Jeremiah 8:8)!

LORD HELP US ALL!

Blessings

 

[Wrangler]

Jesus WAS NOT "setting an example" by being water baptized.

Jesus said in John 13:15 "I have given you AN EXAMPLE to do as I have done unto you" but John 4:2 says "JESUS NEVER WATER BAPTIZED ANYONE" therefore He DID NOT give us "an example."

A distinction without a difference. Everything Jesus did was an example. What he did and what he had done to him is our model to follow.

 

[Norine J Williams]

Absolutely! Must be baptized in the NAME of the Father, Son and Holy Ghost, that name is 'Jesus". If your church will not do that, find a One God Pentecostal Church and get it done.

If your serious about serving God, then do it and ask questions later.

If you are serious about "Worshiping with men's hands" (Acts 17:25) "obeying the commandments of men" (Matthew 15:9) who have "ADDED" another baptism onto Jesus' baptism Who "baptizes us with the Holy Ghost" (John 1:33; Acts 1:5) Who gives "POWER" (Acts 1:8) "to become the sons of GOD" (John 1:12-13), then GO AHEAD and "baptize in the name of the Father, Son and Holy Ghost" (Matthew 28:19) that makes TWO baptisms defying Ephesians 4:5 in which Jesus said (Galatians 1:12) "ONE baptism."

YOU CAN NOT HAVE A RIGHTEOUS BELIEF THAT CONTRADICTS ONE SCRIPTURE OF WHAT GOD SAID!

TO BELIEVE GOD CONTRADICTS HIMSELF DEFIES I CORINTHIANS 14:33 FOR "GOD IS NOT THE AUTHOR OF CONFUSION"

 

[CadyandZoe]

Jesus WAS NOT "setting an example" by being water baptized.

The reason why Jesus was baptized by John was due to a preconceived sign between God and John, whereby John might know, with certainty, who was the Messiah. At the same time, Jesus' baptism also served to praise John's work and lend credibility to John's message, which was "repent, for the kingdom of God is at hand." The very message that Jesus would preach in his own ministry.

 

[Norine J Williams]

A distinction without a difference. Everything Jesus did was an example. What he did and what he had done to him is our model to follow.

JESUS WAS "FULFILLING ALL RIGHTEOUSNESS" (MATTHEW 3:15) >>>THE LAW<<< SINCE "THE LAW IS RIGHTEOUS" (ROMANS 7:12) AS HE PROMISED IN MATTHEW 5:17-18 OF WHAT GOD HAD SPOKEN THROUGH THE PROPHETS ISAIAH (40:3) AND MALACHI (3:1) AND >>>NOT<<< THE DEFINITION OF JOHN'S BAPTISM WHICH WAS ADMINISTERED TO PEOPLE UNDER THE LAW WHO "REPENTED" AND "BELIEVED JESUS WAS COMING" (ACTS 19:4) WHICH HAD NOTHING TO DO WITH A WATER BAPTISM.

WHAT DOES A WATER BAPTISM DO FOR PEOPLE BUT MAKE THEM OBEY A LIE "EVIL MAN" (GENESIS 6:5) HAS "ADDED" INTO SCRIPTURES THIAT MAKES TWO BAPTISMS (EPHESIANS 4:5)?

ASK YOURSELF WHY WASN'T THE DISCIPLES WHO WALKED THE FACE OF THE EARTH WITH JESUS NEVER WATER BAPTIZED?

WHY WASN'T JOHN THE BAPTIZER NEVER WATER BAPTIZED?

WHY WASN'T THE THIEF ON THE CROSS NEVER WATER BAPTIZED?

ASK YOURSELF!

WHY ARE WE TREATED DIFFERENTLY WHEN ROMANS 2:11 SAYS "GOD IS NO RESPECTOR OF PERSONS?"

WHY?