ANALYSIS OF MATTHEW 24:12-13 - WHY IT DISPROVES OSAS

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Phoneman777

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FHII said:
Well you ought to first find out who Lucifer is. Cause he isn't Satan.
Well, of course Lucifer and Satan are one in the same. Jesus Himself said in Luke 10 that He saw Satan fall from heaven and Isaiah 14 said it was Lucifer that fell from heaven. Also, because of the foundational principle in occult science which says light cannot exist w/o darkness, black w/o white, male w/o female, good w/o evil, etc., the only difference is how this being is viewed. This is why he is represented by the androgenic "Baphomet" god, as well as all males gods like Osiris and Apollo or goddesses like Isis and Diana - all represent this same, one, fallen angel. Those who follow his "dark" side are "Satanists" and those who follow his "light" side are "Luciferians".

It is he who "gave his power, seat, and great authority" to the "beast", the Roman Catholic Papacy, which took place when the Restrainer (Pagan Rome) was "taken out of the way" when it fell and was divided among the 10 Barbarian tribes, among which arose the Papacy.
 

tom55

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FHII said:
None of those verses mention nor support freewill. Read my response to phoneman for the proper explanation.

I don't care about mans logic, my stance is biblical and I'm not a robot.... I am a sheep.
Got it.

Throw logic out the window.

YOU know how to properly and infallibly interpret scripture.

And you couldn't provide the definition from Strongs that disproves the definition I provided.
 

FHII

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tom55 said:
Got it.

Throw logic out the window.

YOU know how to properly and infallibly interpret scripture.

And you couldn't provide the definition from Strongs that disproves the definition I provided.
Look Tom, the Bible says what it says. When you or any other man try to apply human logic to things in the Bible (including predestination) i am STILL going to believe the Bible.

Now there is no need to get sarcastic and insulting. But if YOU want to say i know how to properly and infallibly interpret the Bible, well i won't stop you.

As for the Strongs greek definition.... No its not the same. Im on my cell phone so i won't quote the definition you got off google. But it was defining predestination as a religious doctrine, not a word. It literally means to limit in advance. Or figuratively to predetermine or ordain. In other words something God did all throughout the Bible.
 

mjrhealth

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Or figuratively to predetermine or ordain. In other words something God did all throughout the Bible.
We could make a list.

David, Abraham.Moses, Enoch, Lets not forget our saviour "Jesus", Paul, Jerimiah. Joseph and on teh list goes. And teh best evidence

Joh 17:5 And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was.
Joh 17:6 I have manifested thy name unto the men which thou gavest me out of the world: thine they were, and thou gavest them me; and they have kept thy word.
Joh 17:7 Now they have known that all things whatsoever thou hast given me are of thee.
Joh 17:8 For I have given unto them the words which thou gavest me; and they have received them, and have known surely that I came out from thee, and they have believed that thou didst send me.
Joh 17:9 I pray for them: I pray not for the world, but for them which thou hast given me; for they are thine
.Joh 17:10 And all mine are thine, and thine are mine; and I am glorified in them.
 

Wormwood

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God did not predetermine people to believe or to disbelieve. Please show me a text that teaches that. God predetermined the reward of those who are faithful and believe in the Son. It never says he preordained some to believe and some to disbelieve. God foreknows who will believe and who will not and he predetermines reward and punishment. However, he does not cause people to believe or not believe. If the Bible teaches anything, it is that human beings are responsible agents who bring God's wrath by their own evil choices.

Those who were "given" to Jesus in the above verses revealed this because they "received" the words Jesus gave them and "have kept" those words. God's foreknowledge of who will receive his words and accept his grace should not be confused with pan-determinism. It's one thing to know ahead of time what a person will choose...and quite another to cause a person to act in a certain way. God does the former...not the latter.
 

FHII

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Wormwood,

So do you believe this is the order of things:

1. God made us before the foundation of the world.
2. God looked at our future, in which he as absolutely no impact on, to see what we would do.
3. God then predetermines our reward or punishment based on what he foresaw?

Do I have that right? That seems to be what you are saying. First, to think God gives us freewill without his interfering doesn't seem correct when we can look at Jonah, Balaam and Paul and easily see that God can pull some mighty strings in our beliefs. These three (and there are plenty more) don't seem like they had free will in everything they did.

God doesn't have a whole lot to say otherwise on why or how people believe. I know he does at times give some strong influence to the issue, but for you to say God foreknows and then predestinates doesn't seem to have a lot of support. It is simply a statement of convenience to those who want "free will".
 

lforrest

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Jonah could have kept running, and defying God.

Balaam could have given false prophesy, fortunately for him he had some principles.

Saul could have become a blind beggar.
 

FHII

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lforrest said:
Jonah could have kept running, and defying God.

Balaam could have given false prophesy, fortunately for him he had some principles.

Saul could have become a blind beggar.
Jonah could've kept running? Where to? Down the whale's small intestine?

Balaam wasn't setting out to give false prophecy. He was off to curse God's people. But even so.... He would've had to do it without his head attached to his body.

Paul could've become a blind beggar? Ok. Yes. I suppose so. And the movie director in the Godfather could've held fast and denied Johnny Fountaine the movie part!

I am still not convinced that they had free will.
 

Phoneman777

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Wormwood said:
God did not predetermine people to believe or to disbelieve. Please show me a text that teaches that. God predetermined the reward of those who are faithful and believe in the Son. It never says he preordained some to believe and some to disbelieve. God foreknows who will believe and who will not and he predetermines reward and punishment. However, he does not cause people to believe or not believe. If the Bible teaches anything, it is that human beings are responsible agents who bring God's wrath by their own evil choices.

Those who were "given" to Jesus in the above verses revealed this because they "received" the words Jesus gave them and "have kept" those words. God's foreknowledge of who will receive his words and accept his grace should not be confused with pan-determinism. It's one thing to know ahead of time what a person will choose...and quite another to cause a person to act in a certain way. God does the former...not the latter.
...and all God's people said...AMEN!
 

FHII

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"Have not the potter power over the clay, of the same lump to make one vessel unto honour, and another unto dishonour?" - Romans 9:21.
(Just in case you don't know, this verse is all about God choosing whom he will choose. And the vessels of honour are for washing faces and hands. The vessels of dishonour are chamber pots. Meant for poop! And the potter decides, not the vessel! And yes.... Everything I've said is in proper context!
 

tom55

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FHII said:
Look Tom, the Bible says what it says. When you or any other man try to apply human logic to things in the Bible (including predestination) i am STILL going to believe the Bible.

Now there is no need to get sarcastic and insulting. But if YOU want to say i know how to properly and infallibly interpret the Bible, well i won't stop you.

As for the Strongs greek definition.... No its not the same. Im on my cell phone so i won't quote the definition you got off google. But it was defining predestination as a religious doctrine, not a word. It literally means to limit in advance. Or figuratively to predetermine or ordain. In other words something God did all throughout the Bible.
You are going to believe the bible according to who's interpretation and LOGIC? You can't take logic out of interpreting scripture. (Well, YOU can, but a bible scholar wouldn't) And which bible? The one with 73 books or the one with 66 books?

So when I call you out on your twisting of scripture I am being sarcastic or insulting? I apologize!

And you still haven't provided the definition from Strongs that disproves the definition I provided. I am willing to admit I am wrong....I am just asking you to prove me wrong.
 

FHII

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tom55 said:
You are going to believe the bible according to who's interpretation and LOGIC? You can't take logic out of interpreting scripture. (Well, YOU can, but a bible scholar wouldn't) And which bible? The one with 73 books or the one with 66 books?

So when I call you out on your twisting of scripture I am being sarcastic or insulting? I apologize!

And you still haven't provided the definition from Strongs that disproves the definition I provided. I am willing to admit I am wrong....I am just asking you to prove me wrong.
Logically explain to me a talking jackass. Or a virgin giving birth. Or a voice coming out of a burning bush that isn't consumed.

God's ways are as far from man's ways as the east is to the west. But that's not even a point I need to take. I have explained predestination to you as it is explained in the Bible. Absolutely everything I've said is from the Bible. So if you are calling my points illogical then you are calling God illogical OR you must prove your point. And the latter has not been done.

Want an example? You even attacked the Bible! How so? By asking which one... The one with 73 or 66 books. This tells me along with all you other mannerisms you don't have an appreciation for the Bible... Whether it be one with 73 or 66 books. It is clearly, in your mind, beneath your logic.

Call me out for twisting the scripture! I welcome it! But prove it! You haven't.

As for the definition.... Who cares? You are using it as a distractiin, but for the record, yes i did provide a definition that is clearly different from what you got off google. I speak rather plainly. But if you don't understand its ok. Just ask.

So i repeat. Your definition was of a doctrine. It says that everything is predetermined by God and can't be changed. The strongs greek definition was simply that of a word, meaning ordained or predetermined. Its not the same thing!
 

FHII

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Hey Tom, here's another great verse for you to think about:

"For the carnal mind is emnity against God. For it is not subject to the law of God, neither indeed can be. So they that are in the flesh cannot please God. But ye are not in the flesh but in the spirit..."

So your logic is of the carnal mind and is against God. It can't even comprehend the thing of God! The preceding verses tell us that the spiritual mind can, but the spiritual mind isn't going to comprehend man's logic.

And to boot, it proves its point because paul was writing to other living humans who were still in the flesh, but said they weren't in the flesh!

So when you and Dr. Spock can't figure that out with your logic, then you will understand!
 

Wormwood

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So do you believe this is the order of things:

1. God made us before the foundation of the world.
2. God looked at our future, in which he as absolutely no impact on, to see what we would do.
3. God then predetermines our reward or punishment based on what he foresaw?

Do I have that right? That seems to be what you are saying. First, to think God gives us freewill without his interfering doesn't seem correct when we can look at Jonah, Balaam and Paul and easily see that God can pull some mighty strings in our beliefs. These three (and there are plenty more) don't seem like they had free will in everything they did.

God doesn't have a whole lot to say otherwise on why or how people believe. I know he does at times give some strong influence to the issue, but for you to say God foreknows and then predestinates doesn't seem to have a lot of support. It is simply a statement of convenience to those who want "free will".
Not exactly. I'd say it goes something like this...

1. God chose to make the universe with free-will agents.
2. At the moment he made this choice, he foresaw all that would happen with that creation and thus his plan to redeem them and glorify himself in Christ.
3. He predetermined the final penalty of sin and the ultimate reward of those who put their faith in Him and in the work of Christ and foresaw all those who would put faith in Him and those who would not.
3. God created the world.

What needs to be understood is that God does have an impact on our future. That is part of his plan. We were destined for destruction apart from his intervention in Christ, just as the Israelites were destined for destruction apart from his splitting the Red Sea. However, what needs to be understood is that God's intervention does not negate our free-will choices, in fact, it enables it. The reason the wicked are punished is because they have chosen to reject God and what is good. If the OT teaches us anything, it is that God's fury is aroused by sin and wickedness. God grieves the evil choices of men and this is why he judges them. The idea that God has foreordained man's evil acts makes all of the outrage from God in the Scriptures appear as mere acting. Why would God be outraged about something he determined/caused to happen? It would be like me going up and shoving a boy who then hits a girl and knocks her down. How could I get angry at the boy for knocking the girl down when I was the one who initiated the scenario and the boy was simply part of the domino effect?

The brilliance of God is that he does intervene and he does foresee all the future. Yet in all of his understanding and intervention, he does not remove human volition. We are accountable for our actions because they are our actions, not his. Yet, although our actions deserve death, he has made a way by which we can be saved. Although even in this salvation which is his work and not ours, he still provides us with the power to choose. I believe that part of being made in God's image is that we exercise a level of personal autonomy that allows us to exert personal will and free choice, just as God is free and not constrained by anyone else in his decision making.

First, to think God gives us freewill without his interfering doesn't seem correct when we can look at Jonah, Balaam and Paul and easily see that God can pull some mighty strings in our beliefs. These three (and there are plenty more) don't seem like they had free will in everything they did.
Yes, God does interfere. In fact, at times he removes free will. We see often in the OT that when the people of Israel or other nations rejected God's words, God hardened their hearts and made them blind to the truth so they could not repent. There does come a point of no return. However, these are part of God's judgments on rebellion and should not be confused with God causing human rebellion. As for Israel, Jonah, Paul, etc. .. God does select instruments for his purposes. Just as God chose Israel for a purpose, God does exert his authority in selecting peoples or individuals to push his plan for humankind. However, this plan and purpose of God should not be seen as removing free will. If anything, the examples you give show the opposite. God chose Balaam to be a prophet, yet, Balaam, by his own volition chose to try to use that calling for personal gain and he became an example of a chosen vessel of God falling away because of his own wickedness. On the other hand, Paul was chosen by God to be an Apostle to the Gentiles. Yet even Paul makes it clear in his writings that although he was chosen for a purpose, that he had a responsibility in the matter. In fact, Paul talks about how he beats his body and makes it his slave so that after preaching to others, he wouldnt be disqualified for the prize (1 Cor 9:27).

So, we see, that even these "chosen" instruments had the capacity to obey or disobey, and God's choosing them for a purpose did not mandate their salvation. God can use a person as an instrument for his cause (as he did Pharaoh) and still not save the person. This is what Paul is talking about in Romans 9. God chose Israel for his divine purpose, but that purpose did not mandate Israel's salvation. Salvation comes by faith and if a person (even a person chosen as an instrument for a specific purpose) does not seek grace through faith...they will not be saved. We must not confuse God's use of people to carry out his plan as removing free will or mandating salvation for those chosen vessels. This is what Israel's hangup was and why they were refusing to come to faith in Christ. They felt they were saved by virtue of how they were made rather than their free-will choices. Paul goes to great lengths in Romans 9-11 to show that God has always operated by faith and that "true Israel" has always consisted of those people who chose to trust God rather than merely those who were chosen by God to fulfill a purpose.
 

FHII

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Wormwood,

Thank you for the explanation. What I find interesting is that you speak of God's intervention and sometimes removal of free will, yet you still say we have free will. I'm sure you can see the problem with that. If He intervenes, interferes (and I think he does so more than people know) and at times outright removes free will, then I would say it's not really free will.

Before you had said God does not predestinate us to believe, yet he does as you said have "instruments for his purpose". It is true: not all of them are believers. But it seems that the ones he needed to be believers were. Did God pick them to be instruments based on belief? not always, as I will enter Jeremiah's name into the mix.

You don't say much about predestination of individuals, but rather of punishments and rewards. Yet the term appears 4 times in the Bible (twice each in Romans 8 and Ephesians 4) and each of those times it is speaking about individuals or small groups of individuals. Some have said it was predestination the Gentiles, but that is not what the scripture is talking about (Paul said he chose us in him... he was speaking to the gentiles yet he himself wasn't a gentile). Clearly, he is speaking about individuals, but there is a catch.

I do somewhat agree with your belief that we are accountable for our actions.... Somewhat. You well know that no one comes to the Father unless the Father draws him. You also know that many are called, but few are chosen. Both of these things (which are right from the mouth of Jesus) mean that not all are drawn to him and not all are called, much less chosen. Who is drawn, called and chosen is not our action, it's God's action.

Yet, we are to be predestinated to be conformed to the image of his son ("predestinated" is mentioned 4 times in the NT, and it pretty much comes down to what is in Rom 8:29). That of course does not happen by itself... Us sitting on our butts and not responding to the calling. What we must do is act in faith (learn of him, increase our faith, add to faith knowledge, temperance, etc...) Not of works, mind you... But we are responsible for faith.

There is another point (and this is the "catch" I mentioned earlier): I absolutely believe that God predestines individuals, but who are they? The Bible doesn't give names. It only gives us "a formula" (for lack of a better term) in form of warnings, promises, curses, blessings and teaching. We can see what is needed and do what is needed, but Jesus said we have to endure to the end to be saved. So yes, God does predestinate individuals, but only he knows who they are by name. Therefore, we all better act as if God doesn't predestinate anyone.

So, for those latter two reasons I can somewhat agree with you on being held accountable.
 

tom55

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FHII said:
Hey Tom, here's another great verse for you to think about:

"For the carnal mind is emnity against God. For it is not subject to the law of God, neither indeed can be. So they that are in the flesh cannot please God. But ye are not in the flesh but in the spirit..."

So your logic is of the carnal mind and is against God. It can't even comprehend the thing of God! The preceding verses tell us that the spiritual mind can, but the spiritual mind isn't going to comprehend man's logic.

And to boot, it proves its point because paul was writing to other living humans who were still in the flesh, but said they weren't in the flesh!

So when you and Dr. Spock can't figure that out with your logic, then you will understand!
I have no clue what that verse has to do with logic when reading/interpreting scripture. That verse (in context) has to do with the flesh or physical needs or physical weakness of man.

In other words you have once again twisted scripture to fit your agenda.

Who the heck is Dr. Spock?
 

tom55

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FHII said:
Logically explain to me a talking jackass. Or a virgin giving birth. Or a voice coming out of a burning bush that isn't consumed.

I don't understand what point you are trying to make.

God's ways are as far from man's ways as the east is to the west. But that's not even a point I need to take. I have explained predestination to you as it is explained in the Bible. Absolutely everything I've said is from the Bible. So if you are calling my points illogical then you are calling God illogical OR you must prove your point. And the latter has not been done.

You have explained how YOU interpret the bible. YOUR interpretation leaves out any part of scripture that proves you wrong. MOST Christians and scholars do not and have not followed your twisted interpretation of the bible for 2000 years.

Want an example? You even attacked the Bible! How so? By asking which one... The one with 73 or 66 books. This tells me along with all you other mannerisms you don't have an appreciation for the Bible... Whether it be one with 73 or 66 books. It is clearly, in your mind, beneath your logic.

Your statement makes NO SENSE and you didn't answer my question. Which bible do you quote from? (66 or 73)

Call me out for twisting the scripture! I welcome it! But prove it! You haven't.

As for the definition.... Who cares?

I thought you cared since you are the one who initially provided the alleged/twisted definition!!

You are using it as a distractiin, but for the record, yes i did provide a definition that is clearly different from what you got off google. I speak rather plainly. But if you don't understand its ok. Just ask.

So i repeat. Your definition was of a doctrine. It says that everything is predetermined by God and can't be changed. The strongs greek definition was simply that of a word, meaning ordained or predetermined. Its not the same thing!

Once again you HAVE NOT provided a definition from Strongs Greek. YOU are the one who used Strongs definition to back up your twisted analogy of predestination. However now you won't even quote your own source? Weird!

I will provide to you where I got my definition from and I kindly ask that you do the same for me: http://biblehub.com/greek/4309.htm

I look forward to your logical response.
 

Dcopymope

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So I take it that FHII's argument is that God predetermined some not to believe that Jesus is the one who was written about in the old testament who will be the covering for our sins before the six day creation in Genesis? If this is the case, then it means that God made certain people for the purpose of being destroyed in the lake of fire, am I right?
 

FHII

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Dcopymope said:
So I take it that FHII's argument is that God predetermined some not to believe that Jesus is the one who was written about in the old testament who will be the covering for our sins before the six day creation in Genesis? If this is the case, then it means that God made certain people for the purpose of being destroyed in the lake of fire, am I right?
Was it from my response to Wormwood that you came to these conclusions, or hace you read more of my posts in this thread? Reason is because i didn't mention anything like that in my last post.

Nontheless, i understand the thought process. If i do say that some are oredestined to be conformed to the image of Jesus, then logically some aren't. Or maybe they are just "free agents" who could go either way.

Dcopymope... Would you care to explain 2 Peter 2:12 to me?
 

FHII

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Tom55,

You have passion going for you... Ill give you that. But other than that not much else. I'm done discussing the issue with you.

You may commence parting insults.