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Jesus is silent on the matter. The prohibition is adultery, having sex with a married person, which is different from the evolution condemning "extra marital sex." Let's examine 3 verses:
According to the NSRV study notes on the Commandment prohibiting coveting your neighbor's wife was considered a property crime, as the offspring in marriage was presumed to be from the husband and adultery violates this social contract.
And let's not forget Biblical wives Sara (The wife of Abraham), Leah and Rachel (wives of Jacob) had their servants have sex with their husbands. Yes, it was not for sexual satisfaction but procreation. Still the point is no Biblical condemnation for "extra marital sex." This article explains Dinah may not have been raped but "debased" by Shechem, and her brothers were enraged that her bride price would drop. And it explains why he wanted to marry her, overcome with passion not guilt over a sex crime. Let's examine passages in the NT:
IF you claim the NT set a higher standard, then that is the equivalent of yet another new law but Christ did not give us this higher standard. The only new law Jesus gave is in John 13, about love as he loved. Therefore, claiming the NT set a higher standard on this topic is eisegesis. We may conclude sex in marriage is preferred, as Paul wrote in 1 Cor 7, but not commanded by God. Thoughts?
- Genesis 38:11-30. Judah having with Tamar, his daughter-in-law, dressed as a prostitute
- Judges 16:1 Samson has sex in Gaza with a prostitute.
- Proverbs 6:26 (NOG) A prostitute’s price is only a loaf of bread, but a married woman hunts for your life itself.
According to the NSRV study notes on the Commandment prohibiting coveting your neighbor's wife was considered a property crime, as the offspring in marriage was presumed to be from the husband and adultery violates this social contract.
And let's not forget Biblical wives Sara (The wife of Abraham), Leah and Rachel (wives of Jacob) had their servants have sex with their husbands. Yes, it was not for sexual satisfaction but procreation. Still the point is no Biblical condemnation for "extra marital sex." This article explains Dinah may not have been raped but "debased" by Shechem, and her brothers were enraged that her bride price would drop. And it explains why he wanted to marry her, overcome with passion not guilt over a sex crime. Let's examine passages in the NT:
- 1 COR 7. Allows marriage to prevent vague "sexual immorality." v 6, Paul admits his words are not God’s command.
- Other verses also speak vaguely about "sexual immorality" that some translations impose church doctrine prohibiting "fornication," which is not the same thing. (Acts 15:20; 1 Corinthians 5:1; 6:13, 18; 10:8; 2 Corinthians 12:21; Galatians 5:19; Ephesians 5:3; Colossians 3:5; 1 Thessalonians 4:3; Jude 7) Speaking of property crimes, "sexual immorality" must include rape and under age sex, which again is not the same thing as fornication.
IF you claim the NT set a higher standard, then that is the equivalent of yet another new law but Christ did not give us this higher standard. The only new law Jesus gave is in John 13, about love as he loved. Therefore, claiming the NT set a higher standard on this topic is eisegesis. We may conclude sex in marriage is preferred, as Paul wrote in 1 Cor 7, but not commanded by God. Thoughts?
