Biblical Support For Soliciting Prostitutes

[Wrangler]

Jesus is silent on the matter. The prohibition is adultery, having sex with a married person, which is different from the evolution condemning "extra marital sex." Let's examine 3 verses:

1. Genesis 38:11-30. Judah having with Tamar, his daughter-in-law, dressed as a prostitute
2. Judges 16:1 Samson has sex in Gaza with a prostitute.
3. Proverbs 6:26 (NOG) A prostitute’s price is only a loaf of bread, but a married woman hunts for your life itself.

NOTE: What these 3 verses have in common is there is no moral condemnation against prostitution. (Some translations of Proverbs uses the term "whore" rather than prostitute.) The point of the chapter is cautioning against adultery and suggesting it is far cheaper to get sexual satisfaction by a whore or prostitute.

According to the NSRV study notes on the Commandment prohibiting coveting your neighbor's wife was considered a property crime, as the offspring in marriage was presumed to be from the husband and adultery violates this social contract.

And let's not forget Biblical wives Sara (The wife of Abraham), Leah and Rachel (wives of Jacob) had their servants have sex with their husbands. Yes, it was not for sexual satisfaction but procreation. Still the point is no Biblical condemnation for "extra marital sex." This article explains Dinah may not have been raped but "debased" by Shechem, and her brothers were enraged that her bride price would drop. And it explains why he wanted to marry her, overcome with passion not guilt over a sex crime. Let's examine passages in the NT:

• 1 COR 7. Allows marriage to prevent vague "sexual immorality." v 6, Paul admits his words are not God’s command.
• Other verses also speak vaguely about "sexual immorality" that some translations impose church doctrine prohibiting "fornication," which is not the same thing. (Acts 15:20; 1 Corinthians 5:1; 6:13, 18; 10:8; 2 Corinthians 12:21; Galatians 5:19; Ephesians 5:3; Colossians 3:5; 1 Thessalonians 4:3; Jude 7) Speaking of property crimes, "sexual immorality" must include rape and under age sex, which again is not the same thing as fornication.

IF "sexual immorality" includes consensual sex of unmarried adults, which fornication is, how do you reconcile that with the 3 verses originally cited?
IF you claim the NT set a higher standard, then that is the equivalent of yet another new law but Christ did not give us this higher standard. The only new law Jesus gave is in John 13, about love as he loved. Therefore, claiming the NT set a higher standard on this topic is eisegesis. We may conclude sex in marriage is preferred, as Paul wrote in 1 Cor 7, but not commanded by God. Thoughts?

 

[TitusTwoWife]

What about these verses?

1 Corinthians 6:15-17

King James Version
15 Know ye not that your bodies are the members of Christ? shall I then take the members of Christ, and make them the members of an harlot? God forbid.

16 What? know ye not that he which is joined to an harlot is one body? for two, saith he, shall be one flesh.

17 But he that is joined unto the Lord is one spirit.

 

[Jericho]

God never condemned polygamy either, though I don't believe that was ever His intent. The Bible doesn't specifically condemn a lot of things, like recreational drugs. That doesn't mean it's okay for us to do them. To believe otherwise would seem to be an argument from silence. The Bible often told the narrative of what happened without commenting on the morality or ethics of it. That's not a tacit endorsement of something just because it doesn't explicitly condemn it.

I think God defined the boundaries of sex when He said, "A man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and they shall become one flesh. (Gen 2:24), which Jesus later reiterated. Sex was meant to be within the confines of marriage. Anything outside of that would fall into the sexual immorality category.