'And as they thus spake, Jesus Himself stood in the midst of them,
and saith unto them, "Peace be unto you."
But they were terrified and affrighted,
and supposed that they had seen a spirit.
And He said unto them, "Why are ye troubled?
and why do thoughts arise in your hearts?
Behold my hands and my feet, that it is I myself:
handle me, and see;
for a spirit hath not flesh and bones, as ye see me have."
(Luke 24:36-39)
Hello
@Taken,
With reference to the verse I quoted from Luke's gospel (quoted above), you say (quote)
'Jesus said' (not Christ)'. Would you please tell me why you make this distinction? and what difference you believe that makes to the words He uttered ?
* You ask me for my understanding of the words,
'according to the flesh'. Well, if you are referring to the verse I quoted from Acts 2:20, where David prophesied concerning the coming of Christ,
'Men and brethren, let me freely speak unto you of the patriarch David,
that he is both dead and buried, and his sepulchre is with us unto this day.
Therefore being a prophet, and knowing that God had sworn with an oath to him,
that of the fruit of his loins, according to the flesh,
He would raise up Christ to sit on His throne;
He seeing this before spake of the resurrection of Christ,
that his soul was not left in hell,
neither his flesh did see corruption.'
(Acts 2:29-31)
* I believe that the words, '
according to the flesh', are intended to distinguish between what is of the flesh, and what is of the spirit.
Thank you.
In Christ Jesus
Chris
I agree with scripture. Yet I do not completely agree with your understanding.
The Word of God came forth out from Gods mouth. Truly I believe that which is IN God, IS God, regardless if what IS God comes forth out from God.
The Word of God, by Gods own pleasure, came to earth IN the "LIKENESS" (appearence and manifestation) of a "HUMAN" man. That manifestation didn't "MAKE" the Word of God a "human", it "MADE" him Appear in the "Likeness" as a human, for human men to see and hear and observe as an Example "for" the benefit of human men.
According to the flesh? Yes.
With a form and likeness as a human..
Bones, Flesh, Blood, walking, talking, eating, sleeping, liked, disliked, falsely accused, attacked, tired, etc.
And yes, entered THIS world, in the same manner "according" to the flesh, being in the womb of a human woman 9 months, coming forth from the woman's womb, being called born of a woman, being called and recorded (according to mans LAW), as a Legal Son of That woman.
As well "according" to the flesh, (LAW of man, and nature), that babe born of a woman, is the "Son of", that woman's, ancestorial "fathers".....Abraham, Jacob, Issac....AND...
Most importantly..."Isaac and King David".
Thus, the Word of God, announced to be called: by the Name of Jesus, AND by the Title of Son of God...fulfilled (and continues to fulfill) Gods promises, Gods Law and Mans Law.
Jesus did not come in the LIKENESS of "ALL" men. (In one respect yes, aka, flesh, blood and bone). However expressly Jesus came in the LIKENESS of a specific man...Faithful Abraham...
It was forward TO Abraham (and Abrahams faithful descendants) that God made specific promises.
IF you read the ancient scriptures, Abraham was Abram, a son of a man who had come to ACCEPT and live according to Gentile ways, (as did many of the Tribes of Israel, who at one time had been "SET apart" and became Lost.)
I am a Gentile by my natural earthly birth, and not, BY natural birth..WITH the Lord God.
Jesus came in the Likeness of a Faithful man, to SEEK out Faithful (to God) men out of the Tribes of Israel, and LOST men, (once having been faithful to God, but Lost their way), particularly Judah. And by default, Gentiles Also began to Hear, Listen, Observe Jesus, and ACCEPT His teachings, and ACCEPT His Word, and ACCEPT His God.
A little dilemma...I am still a Gentile, and Abraham a Hebrew. And it was forward to Abraham that God made promises that Abraham would be a Father of many nations.
And LAND was promised to Abraham (AND) Abrahams Descendants.
That LAND so promised Abraham IS ALSO where King David's everlasting Throne sits.
It was necessary for the Word of God to be manifested IN the historical genealogical line of Abraham AND Isaac AND King David (according to Gods law and mans law), FOR the Word of God, to legally take possession of King Davids Throne.
Scripture Teaches;
Jesus "took upon Himself" the "seed" of "FAITHFUL" Abraham, (forward VIA Isaac specific, not Ishmael ), which "MADE" Jesus an heir to Abraham's promised LAND.
KEY note... a "FAITHFUL" man, (specifically named Abraham), is the "LIKENESS" Jesus took upon Himself.
I am not a Hebrew, Jew, or out of ANY Tribe of Israel..."YET", LIKE JESUS, my Example, "I" also took upon myself the 'seed' of Abraham, thus "MAKING" myself (like Jesus), an HEIR to Abraham's promised "land" inheritance.
And WHAT "seed" is that that one TAKES upon themselves?
For the fulfillment of mans LAW, it is Abraham's (forward to Isaac) Descending Line....MAKING such a man a son of Abraham on earth.
For the fulfillment of Gods LAW, it is the SEED of God (who IS Christ)...MAKING such a man a son of God.
Point being. Jesus IS NOT, WAS NOT, "a Human man" (as BOL and others teach). Jesus IS the Word of God manifested in the Likeness AS a (human) man, FOR the benefit of (human) men.
And when earthly men Hear, Learn, Trust and commit TO the Lord God, they DO NOT BECOME GOD, they become "IN Gods LIKENESS".
Glory to God,
Taken