Ok....You have been taught that a woman must have sex with the man she is married to and you have rejected the 2,000 year teaching of Christianity. Why do you reject 2,000 years of teaching and accept a 500 year teaching?
The Church believes that Mary, who was chosen by God to give birth to his Son, remained dedicated to God; the father of her child. You don't think that Mary had the willpower to resist sexual relations with a man after being chosen by God to give birth to His child. Even though we know that millions of women over the last 2,000 years have remained a virgin in their dedication to God....Mary just didn't have the will power to do that....Fascinating theory!
Well, that's kind of the point in a way, but no, that's besides the point in this case.
The verses straight up say when and that she waited.
I hate these talks because I know how sensitive things can be, especially if it is all a person has believed, and then the mindset has to be challenged, but isn't it better to know what the word says than what we have been told?
Theoretically, what would you choose?
I showed you what it says. Can you tell me this:
1. Where does it say Mary was a virgin forever?
2. Why does she need to be pure forever?
3. She was married, so why is it a shame for her to have had relations? It was designed by God and took place from the time of Adam and Eve.
4. Do you believe sex in marriage causes a person to be impure? If so, where does it say that?
Mary having been a good wife and having a marriage, in no way taints the Bible or the gospel, but it does challenge a false belief. We know exactly when it happened. The Bible tells us so.
