Apology accepted. No worries.
When read in context, I was referring to the land promises to Israel.
Joshua 21:43-45
Joshua 23:14-15
I see nothing about those two passages of Scripture that mean any fulfillment of any other prophecy or promise regarding Israel has been stopped by Israel coming into the Land for the first time. In fact, the second passage says the future promise to Israel is to destroy them and remove them from the Land because they are disobedient. But, one would have to read the next verse to get that in context.
2 Peter 3:8 does not say that a Day = 1,000 years. It just doesn't. Most who use it to make this false claim never post the second half of the verse.
"... one day (upon the earth) is with the Lord as a thousand years, AND A THOUSAND YEARS (upon the earth are) AS ONE DAY (with the Lord)."
The absence of "=" means it is a verbal equation, not a mathematical one. The preface for the statement is, "do not remain ignorant," or "do not be oblivious to." To what are we to not be oblivious? We are not to be oblivious to the fact that a day is like a thousand years and a thousand years is like a day. If the point were being made that "any amount of time could be any other amount of time," then a day could have been compared to 10,000 years, or 100,000 years. But, it wasn't. It was compared to 1,000 years, and we are specifically told to NOT be ignorant that the comparison is made in the Psalms.
Psalms 90:4 does not say that a Day = 1,000 years. Again, it just doesn't say that, no matter how it is twisted.
"For a thousand years in this sight (Lord) are but as yesterday when it is past, and as a watch in the night."
A traditional 'watch in the night' is a period of 3-4 hours. It doesn't align with the explanation that is given to make this verse claim that a Day = 1,000 years.
Here you rely on the punctuation of a 400 year-old translation to "prove" your point. However, this would not be the first, or last dubious interpretation triggered by clumsy translating. A more literate understanding would be:
"For a thousand years in thy sight are but as yesterday when it is past. (Comparative statement #1)
And as a watch in the night, thou carriest them away as with a flood. (Comparative statement #2.)
They are as a sleep.
In the morning they are like grass which groweth up.
It is not a comparison of a watch being the same as a day or 1,000 years. It is the lesson that such a short period of time is so easily carried away and that some could more easily understand it because they know what it means to sleep through one.
Besides all that, those verses have nothing at all to do with anything written in Rev. 20 whatsoever.
I don't like false doctrine. You are correct about that. If it doesn't positively align with scripture in its entirety, I do not like it. Can you guess who else doesn't like it?
That is your claim. However, there is NO reason to think that a specific duration of time should be ignored simply because it is in the book of Revelation. I think it lines up perfectly with the rest of Scripture. I think the most repeated Commandment is "guard the Sabbath." This lesson is for those who have paid attention to human history. I think the 1,000 year period is just as valid as the 42 months of Revelation 11:2 and 13:5. Are we now to NOT believe the time period when the beast persecutes YHVH's people? Is it going to be 3 and a half years, or is that now open for debate? Will there be a hope of it ending, or is it going to be indeterminate? If every word of YHVH is our life, then all of them mean something, even if they appear obscure. Will the 2 witnesses actually prophesy for 1,260 days? Daniel 8:4 and 12:12 specify 1,300 days and 1,335 days as markers for other events. They are only mentioned once. Does that mean their absence everywhere else in the Bible means they are invalid?
Yes, Peter is speaking of people getting impatient about Christ's return in that chapter. What he says in that particular verse is tantamount to "Time is not experienced the same way to God as it is to us." We are inside the 3-dimensions of time, space and matter. God is not. He created this 3-dimensional reality. If He created it, He cannot exist inside of it. He is Spirit. A day for us cannot possibly equal 1,000 years for God. There is no time in His spiritual dimension. There is NO reason to think that there is no marking of time in the supernatural. It may be different time than we have. But, NOTHING suggests there CANNOT be time in the supernatural. In fact, it makes more sense that there IS time in the supernatural. That is part of the reason He can see the end from the beginning. That may be evidence that time in the supernatural is different. But, it is NOT a certainty that there is no time at all. In fact, this entire discussion is about them being comparable, not exclusive to the natural universe. Therefore, it cannot be cited as a reason why the comparison cannot be made.
These passages all align perfectly:
Matthew 24:29-31
Isaiah 13:9-11
1 Thessalonians 4:16-17
But none of them align with Revelation 20. There are no passages anywhere in scripture that align with its reference to a 1,000 year period after Christ's return. So, I ask you: What do we do with that then?
All of those passages refer to events leading up to the return. The 1,000 year period is after the return. The time of the return is all that concerned them. What happens afterward is of no concern. They already knew of "the world to come." So, there is no alignment problem. Your analysis is like saying someone reported on the events leading up top the kickoff, but because they never mentioned the half-time show, there can't be a half-time show.
For me, if something doesn't align with concepts in scripture that are well established by multiple texts, then they simply must mean something else. There is a significance to Rev. 20, but not as a doctrine that will take place after Christ's return. There just isn't any support for that.
No, I refer to its tiny footprint in the Bible with absolutely no support from any other scripture anywhere. It does have a purpose, as does all scripture, but not as the Millennium doctrine that it has been made out to be.
I agree that it is the hallmark of modern mainstream false Christian doctrine that is widely taught and blindly accepted by the masses. But God Himself has commented upon that travesty.
Hosea 4:6 The lack of knowledge here is the absence of the Torah. It says, "seeing thou hast forgotten the law of thy God." That is the lack of knowledge. For someone who is always mentioning context, this is a good time to acknowledge it. It is in the context of the Torah that the comparison exists in the first place.
Besides the throne, specifically, all those concepts are well established by multiple books, in multiple places, in the Bible. God is a Spirit and His Throne is in heaven, a spiritual dimension. Jesus' (who is God - John 1:1, 14) has a kingdom, but it is not in this physical world. John 18:36
The throne, and God's kingdom, are both very real, but they likely will never exist physically in this current world.
They WILL exist here. That is what "the new heavens and new earth" are all about. It is "Olam HaBa," the world to come.
Isn't the New Jerusalem coming down to earth, and God will dwell among his people, and he will be their God?
I don't see anything that doesn't line up except your interpretation. There is a world to come. It is going to be exactly like this one, except it is renewed. Time will pass, and there will be markers for time. How else can people observe the Feast of Tabernacles? Zechariah 14 is all about the Day of YHVH, and the subsequent society that lives on the earth. Verse 16 begins the explanation about YHVH punishing the people who do not come to Jerusalem for the Feast of Tabernacles. Where did those people come from? They are the second resurrection.
2 Peter 3:10-16 We look for a new heaven and new earth, wherein dwells righteousness.
For 1,000 years, ONLY the people who obeyed YHVH will live on the earth. After 1,000 years, the rest of the dead are raised. And they will come to Zion to worship YHVH, but will not be allowed to enter the city. They are the people outside the city who are mentioned in Revelation 22:15. YHVH's people will have a Sabbath full of righteousness before the rest of the dead are raised and judged, and some are allowed to live on the earth.
Revelation 22:15 Outside the city are "dogs, and sorcerers, and whoremongers, and murderers, and idolaters, and whosoever loveth and maketh a lie." How did they get there? How did these "obviously not righteous" people end up living outside the New Jerusalem? Why are they NOT in the Lake of Fire? How is their presence an example of righteousness dwelling on the new earth? Hmmm...