Did Jesus claim to be God?

[TheHC]

When Jesus said His followers must be “*not of* / *no part of* this world” (John 15:19), what do you think?
Would it be ok to support one side over another side when one country fights another?

What actually could be more…. worldly ….than getting involved in killing other people?

Now, ask yourselves: what’s been the reputation of Christendom’s leaders — the majority of whom claim Jesus is God? What reputation have they established in this regard?

Protestant clergyman Harry Emerson Fosdick stated: “Even in our churches we have put the battle flags . . . With one corner of our mouth we have praised the Prince of Peace and with the other we have glorified war.”

But what did Jesus command?
“ I am giving you a new commandment, that you love one another. Just as I have loved you, that you also love one another.” — John 13:34.

Jesus gave his life; he never took any.

Jesus’ further words in John 14:15 & John 15:14 stress obedience.

Believing in Jesus is wonderful, but if it’s not backed up with obedience, its basically useless.

And of those leaders who are disobedient, it should also bring into question the tenets of their respective belief strictures.

Listening to God should be our priority. Unfortunately, this world is ruled by the Devil (John 12:31; 1 John 5:19); and to keep our integrity to God, it may at times require that we disobey the world.
— James 1:27; James 4:4; 1 John 2:17

You all are my (distant) cousins.
Agápē…I wish you the best.

 

[Waiting on him]

Peter was taught directly by Jesus. Who taught you?

Have a look at this also.

It appears that even upon Jesus’ arrival in heaven that God is still revealing things to him?

The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave unto him, to shew unto his servants things which must shortly come to pass; and he sent and signified it by his angel unto his servant John:
— Revelation 1:1

 

[Waiting on him]

Peter was taught directly by Jesus. Who taught you?

I’m just reading scripture.

 

[Jack]

I’m just reading scripture.

You missed a bunch that say Jesus is God and Hell fire is everlasting.

 

[APAK]

God head is in the bible.

Acts 17:29
Forasmuch then as we are the offspring of God, we ought not to think that the Godhead is like unto gold, or silver, or stone, graven by art and man's device.

Romans 1:20
For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse:

Colossians 2:9
For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.

So you have been misinformed.

Deut. 6:4 uses the compound one of Hebrew as well as Elohim which is the plural of elowah!

John 5:18
Therefore the Jews sought the more to kill him, because he not only had broken the sabbath, but said also that God was his Father, making himself equal with God.

John 1:1​

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King James Version​

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1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

2 Corinthians 3:17
Now the Lord(Yahweh) is that Spirit: and where the Spirit of the Lord is, there is liberty.

Jesus and the Holy Spirit are equally divine as God the Father. so the terms god God the Son and God the Holy Spirit are used to differentiate the epersons within the Godhead!

'Godhead' was invented and added into scripture about 500 years or so give or take decades +/-.....research it...I did and I was not surprised as it never really did fit into the context where it was written.

 

[Gottservant]

The thing you need to remember to define, is that Jesus was God crucified.

Jesus does not replace God, He understands that He is a nuance of the expression of God - and so does not attempt to deny they are the one object.

But does that mean Jesus tries to give glory to Himself in connection with God? No, for then He would not be honouring God.

 

[APAK]

The thing you need to remember to define, is that Jesus was God crucified.

Jesus does not replace God, He understands that He is a nuance of the expression of God - and so does not attempt to deny they are the one object.

But does that mean Jesus tries to give glory to Himself in connection with God? No, for then He would not be honouring God.

I think you hit a couple of fouls balls here...."that Jesus was God crucified" is the 1st one and .." and the 2nd...does not attempt to deny they the ONE OBJECT.."

 

[Gottservant]

I think you hit a couple of fouls balls here...."that Jesus was God crucified" is the 1st one and .." and the 2nd...does not attempt to deny they the ONE OBJECT.."

God was crucified with Jesus, is the weak way of putting it. As for them being the One Object, that's what they are to the Holy Spirit ("they shall all be taught by God", "the Holy Spirit will teach you all things" - is the Holy Spirit teaching something different to God? No, it just depends on where in the object of our faith you choose to focus).

Remember the wheels with eyes that Ezekial saw, where one went, they all went, that was the nature of the object God had created. Does one part of the wheel with eyes, see further than the others? That depends on where the wheel is going!

I get the feeling you are going to find this hard to grasp... you need Jesus to be "Jesus", it would be rude of me to try and point out why.

 

[GracePeace]

'Godhead' was invented and added into scripture about 500 years or so give or take decades +/-.....research it...I did and I was not surprised as it never really did fit into the context where it was written.

What was the word previously?

 

[Jack]

'Godhead' was invented and added into scripture about 500 years or so give or take decades +/-.....research it...I did and I was not surprised as it never really did fit into the context where it was written.

Colossians 2:9 (DRV)
9 For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead corporeally;
Colossians 2:9 (ASV)
9 for in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily,
Colossians 2:9 (AMP)
9 For in Him the whole fullness of Deity (the Godhead) continues to dwell in bodily form [giving complete expression of the divine nature].
Colossians 2:9 (CSBBible)
9 For the entire fullness of God's nature dwells bodily in Christ,
Colossians 2:9 (CEB)
9 All the fullness of deity lives in Christ's body.
Colossians 2:9 (CJB)
9 For in him, bodily, lives the fullness of all that God is.
Colossians 2:9 (CEV)
9 God lives fully in Christ.
Colossians 2:9 (Darby)
9 For in him dwells all the fulness of the Godhead bodily;
Colossians 2:9 (ETRV)
9 I say this because all of God lives in Christ fully, even in his life on earth.
Colossians 2:9 (ESV)
9 For in him the whole fullness of deity dwells bodily,
Colossians 2:9 (GW)
9 All of God lives in Christ's body,
Colossians 2:9 (HCSB)
9 For the entire fullness of God’s nature dwells bodily in Christ,
Colossians 2:9 (ICB)
9 All of God lives in Christ fully (even when Christ was on earth).
Colossians 2:9 (KJV)
9 For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.
Colossians 2:9 (MLB)
9 For in Him all the fullness of the Godhead dwells bodily,
Colossians 2:9 (NET1)
9 For in him all the fullness of deity lives[20] in bodily form,
Colossians 2:9 (NASB77)
9 For in Him all the fulness of Deity dwells in bodily form,
Colossians 2:9 (NASB)
9 For in Him all the fullness of Deity dwells in bodily form,
Colossians 2:9 (NCV)
9 All of God lives in Christ fully (even when Christ was on earth),
Colossians 2:9 (NIV)
9 For in Christ all the fullness of the Deity lives in bodily form,
Colossians 2:9 (NIV2011)
9 For in Christ all the fullness of the Deity lives in bodily form,
Colossians 2:9 (NJB)
9 In him, in bodily form, lives divinity in all its fullness,
Colossians 2:9 (NLT2)
9 For in Christ lives all the fullness of God in a human body.
Colossians 2:9 (NRSV)
9 For in him the whole fullness of deity dwells bodily,
Colossians 2:9 (RSV)
9 For in him the whole fulness of deity dwells bodily,
Colossians 2:9 (TLB)
9 For in Christ there is all of God in a human body;
Colossians 2:9 (MSG)
9 Everything of God gets expressed in him, so you can see and hear him clearly.
Colossians 2:9 (TEV)
9 For the full content of divine nature lives in Christ, in his humanity,
Colossians 2:9 (Webster's Bible)
9 For in him dwelleth all the fullness of the Godhead bodily.
Colossians 2:9 (YLT)
9 because in him doth tabernacle all the fulness of the Godhead bodily,

 

[Aunty Jane]

God head is in the bible.

No, it’s only in the trinitarian translations based on the KJV…..a rather useless dinosaur in this 21st century but useful for maintaining this doctrine in Christendom because it supports it in every way.

Look it up in Strongs Concordance and see for yourself…..there is no “godhead”….that is a mistranslation of “theios”…which means….

1. “a general name of deities or divinities as used by the Greeks”.

It is related to “theos” which means “God” (capital “G”…Yahweh) only with the definite article (ho) where it is necessary to identify him. It refers to other divine beings as well. Was Jesus a divine being? Absolutely! But he was not Yahweh….and never once said he was.

Acts 17:29
Forasmuch then as we are the offspring of God, we ought not to think that the Godhead is like unto gold, or silver, or stone, graven by art and man's device.

”theios” is not the godhead. It is translated “Divine Nature” in other Bibles which are more accurately translated than the KJV.

Romans 1:20
For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse:

This is ”theiotēs” also translated as “Divine Nature”.

Whose invisible qualities are seen in creation? Not the godhead.….it is speaking about God’s power and his position as Universal Sovereign.

Col 2:9

More correctly translated….
”For in Him all the fullness of Deity dwells in bodily form”.

Again this is “theotēs” but translated a different way.
Being “divine” and having a “divine nature” does not make Jesus, Yahweh. He is and always has been, “the son of God”…..never was he called “God the Son” which in Roman Catholicism was almost a play on words because they were sun worshippers and turned Jesus into “God the Sun”. Looking at statues of Zeus, we see the Roman version of Jesus.

For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.

So you have been misinformed.

Sorry but it is you who have been misinformed…..there it states, not that Jesus is part of a godhead, but that “the fullness” of the “divine nature” of his God and Father was in him. “Like father….like son”….”the image of the invisible God”.

Deut. 6:4 uses the compound one of Hebrew as well as Elohim which is the plural of elowah!

You need to study more Ronald. Sometimes this plural refers to a number of gods (Gen 31:30-32; 35:2), but more often it is used as a plural of majesty, dignity, or excellence. ʼElo·himʹ is used in the Scriptures with reference to Jehovah himself, to angels, to idol gods (singular and plural), and to men….so that is a baseless argument.

John 5:18
Therefore the Jews sought the more to kill him, because he not only had broken the sabbath, but said also that God was his Father, making himself equal with God.

Read in Greek you will see that Jesus had a great opportunity to declare himself as ‘God incarnate’ because the Jews were going to pin a charge of blasphemy on him anyway….yet what did they say? He was ‘calling God his own Father’….he was not calling himself God.

Another really really awful translation is found at Phil 2:5-6, as it conveys the complete opposite of what Paul wrote.

The NASB renders that scripture…

“Have this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus, who, although He existed in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped”.

This is speaking about Jesus before he was born in human flesh…..”he existed in God’s form” and we know that “God is a spirit” because John also tells us that (John 4:24)…..and Paul tells us that God is “invisible”, so Jesus was an invisible spirit before coming to the earth…..but even though he was a glorious spirit being, he did not put himself forward like satan did in trying to be “like God”….he never wanted such a thing for himself.

John 1:1​

King James Version​

​

1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

This has been exposed countless times as another erroneous pro-trinitarian mistranslation.
Read in Greek, it doesn’t say what the English translation implies…..

The use of the definite article separates the Word as a divine and separate being to his Father.
Correctly translated, it should read….
“In the beginning was the Word, (ho logos) and the Word (ho logos) was with God (ho theos), and the Word (ho logos) was divine( theos).”

The definite article is seen only once in that verse referring to Yahweh….it is missing from the second mention of “theos” as we see in Strongs definition, this word does not only mean Yahweh.
You have swallowed an ancient lie….who told you it was true? Not God.

2 Corinthians 3:17
Now the Lord(Yahweh) is that Spirit: and where the Spirit of the Lord is, there is liberty.

Did Jesus receive God’s spirit…if so when? And what did it mean?

Jesus and the Holy Spirit are equally divine as God the Father. so the terms god God the Son and God the Holy Spirit are used to differentiate the epersons within the Godhead!

There is not a single verse of scripture that says so. There are not three persons in any godhead…the RCC made that up and fed that lie to their ignorant members who had no way to check the scriptures for themselves and they could not trust their church leaders any more than the “lost sheep” could trust the Pharisees in Jesus‘ day.…..”blind guides” Jesus called them….and there is a big surprise awaiting those who swallow the lie and despite being told the truth…..they denied it. They were too busy pointing fingers and crying “heresy! “ at the ones who were trying to warn them.

Don’t you see history repeating??

 

[Aunty Jane]

The thing you need to remember to define, is that Jesus was God crucified.

It staggers me to understand how people can think that mere humans can kill God.
God is immortal and cannot die….he “sent” his son to do what he could not. Jesus was “God’s holy servant” (Acts 4:27; 30) Please tell us how God can be his own “servant”…his own “mediator” and his own “High Priest”…?

Jesus does not replace God, He understands that He is a nuance of the expression of God - and so does not attempt to deny they are the one object.

He understands what a “son” is to a “father”…..this is a relationship that humans know and experience….yet the trinity alters it to mean something else entirely.

But does that mean Jesus tries to give glory to Himself in connection with God? No, for then He would not be honouring God.

That is called justification, but based on purely circumstantial evidence. Scripture is twisted to fit the belief, not the belief coming from explicit scripture. You cannot make God into what humans want him to be…he is who he is and always was.…..”the Most High over all the earth” (Psalm 83:18)…..there is no one higher or equal to Yahweh, who is the God of Jesus Christ.

 

[Fred J]

• Did Jesus know that he was God?

He indeed claimed, He is one with the only true GOD, and the only true GOD is one with Him. For, GOD is Spirit (not the Holy Spirit), invisible, who art in Heaven and in secret. For no one have seen GOD at any time other than the only begotten Son. Whom is in the bosom of the FATHER, hence He have declared HIM.

Therefore, Jesus the Son and the Word of GOD, and is the visible image of the invisible GOD the FATHER. (Colossians 1:15/ John 1:1/ Hebrews 1:3)

Why did Jesus not say explicitly that he was God in the Gospels?

For it is written, 'Who, being in the form of GOD, thought it not robbery to be equal with GOD: but made Himself of no reputation, and took upon Him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men: And being formed in fashion as a man, He humbled Himself, became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross.'

How about GOD the FATHER HIMSELF addressing HIS Son as, 'God' and 'Lord', as the Son returned back home in victory?

 

[Fred J]

Why not consider psalm number two. A clear distinction between God and Jesus. Just because Jesus is also a deity it does not make him his Father.

Indeed, it does not make Him the FATHER, as they are two individual person, nor the FATHER the Holy Spirit. Nevertheless, the Son is the visible image of the invisible FATHER, who art in Heaven and in secret, in representation to all creation.

If this is not the truth, Jesus would not be able to answer Philip in that manner whom have been all along. Even, He would have immediately stopped Thomas from proclaiming, his 'Lord' and his 'GOD', if this is not the truth.

 

[Fred J]

As to our earthly terms GOD also spoke, that Jesus is, 'HIS only begotten'. Apparently, there's no marriage in Heaven, therefore GOD did not have a wife to begat Jesus. Obviously, HE begot Jesus as how HE begat all creation, 'creating them', unlike earthly terms, either. 'conceived', or 'adopted'.

Now, If am earthly and were to say to others, 'my only begotten son'? Obviously, i got him with my wife, thus made by us, and non other apparently. Therefore, he is the 'firstborn' of ours i will be proclaiming, compared to others to come in the future.

So, it is in the same concept but in the Heavenly terms, here GOD is introducing HIS Son to all creation. Hence, HIMSELF proclaiming, 'My only begotten Son', apparently, there's no wife, therefore, GOD made the Son by HIMSELF in creation. While, all other creation in Heaven and on earth, were made by the SON and through the Son, and for the Son. For, GOD and Son created all of them therein, nevertheless, since is the handwork of the Son, while subjected to GOD, the Son is God over all of them.

Finally, to GOD based on all creation including HIS Son, HE will indeed proclaim that, HIS Son is the 'firstborn' over or of all creation/creature. (Colossians 1:15)

And, GOD is also not wrong to proclaim HIS Son as, 'HIS only begotten', whom was alone made by HIM.

 

[Aunty Jane]

Indeed, it does not make Him the FATHER, as they are two individual person, nor the FATHER the Holy Spirit. Nevertheless, the Son is the visible image of the invisible FATHER, who art in Heaven and in secret, in representation to all creation.

When did God ever portray himself as thee separate individuals who could be in three different places at the same time? This weird concept is entirely missing from the scriptures.
God’s Omniscience allows him to see all, and to know all, in any given place or time….

If is “one God”…why does he need to talk to other parts of himself? Why does the son pray to the Father, but the Father never prays to either of the other two?
Has anyone in Christendom ever thought through how illogical and completely unnecessary this belief is?

Why did Jesus need to be God in order to redeem the human race in the first place? Who said that only God was capable of performing this deed?
If we understand the mechanics of redemption, we can see why God could NEVER redeem the human race on his own….he was ‘overqualified…..and that is a major understatement!

The redeemer had to offer a set price to “buy back” the human race….”atonement” means “at-one-ment”…”one for one”….and only Jesus could offer his life for Adam’s. “One for one” meant that Jesus had to be the exact equivalent of Adam (and why he is called “the last Adam”)….to offer his sinless life for the one Adam took from all his children.
How could God ever be the equivalent of Adam?…his own creation, made “lower than the angels”?
That would be like using a hundred, thousand, trillion cans of bug spray to kill one mosquito…..a ridiculous amount of overkill!

God “sent” his son on that mission because at that time the only immortal Being in existence was Yahweh.
God himself could not offer an immortal life for an mortal one, because the scales of justice would not have been balanced. If Jesus did not die the death of a man who was 100% mortal but sinless, then the ransom was not paid and we still stand condemned.

If this is not the truth, Jesus would not be able to answer Philip in that manner whom have been all along. Even, He would have immediately stopped Thomas from proclaiming, his 'Lord' and his 'GOD', if this is not the truth.

Since calling someone other than Yahweh “theos” (god) is biblical, it is certainly not impossible for those who are divine or who have divine authority to be called “gods” because the Greek language allowed for such a translation.
Jesus used it in John 10:31-36. Human judges were called “gods” by Yahweh himself...and they were not even doing a good job.
Jesus only ever said he was “the son of God”….he never once said he shared any equality at all with his God and Father.…not on earth, and not in heaven. (Rev 3:12)

 

[Fred J]

When did God ever portray himself as thee separate individuals who could be in three different places at the same time? This weird concept is entirely missing from the scriptures.
God’s Omniscience allows him to see all, and to know all, in any given place or time….

'Weird', is about someone apparently lack in knowledge and quick to speculate fallacy.

When John the Baptist, baptized Jesus (first person), and as He surfaced from the water wet. Next, the Holy Spirit (second person) descended on Jesus in the form of a dove. And next, GOD (third person) spoke from Heaven, and all of this happened at the same time.

 

[Aunty Jane]

'Weird', is about someone apparently lack in knowledge and quick to speculate fallacy.

When John the Baptist, baptized Jesus (first person), and as He surfaced from the water wet. Next, the Holy Spirit (second person) descended on Jesus in the form of a dove. And next, GOD (third person) spoke from Heaven, and all of this happened at the same time.

If Jesus was God, why did he need to receive the holy spirit only after his baptism? Did he not always have this spirit since it is God’s spirit?
The son of God was baptized to demonstrate the commencement of his earthly mission…..he was anointed with God’s spirit, and thereafter could perform miracles….(the first miracle recorded was turning water into fine wine). God spoke from heaven voicing his approval of his obedient son….where does it say that all three are “God?”

 

[Fred J]

If Jesus was God, why did he need to receive the holy spirit only after his baptism? Did he not always have this spirit since it is God’s spirit?
The son of God was baptized to demonstrate the commencement of his earthly mission…..he was anointed with God’s spirit, and thereafter could perform miracles….(the first miracle recorded was turning water into fine wine). God spoke from heaven voicing his approval of his obedient son….where does it say that all three are “God?”

The same i ask, why GOD is SPIRIT, yet HE need and uses the Holy Spirit?

 

[Aunty Jane]

The same i ask, why GOD is SPIRIT, yet HE need and uses the Holy Spirit?

The Holy Spirit is not God….it emanates from God as his boundless power….directed to whomever and wherever it is needed.