First bishop at Rome, male or female

[ScottA]

This matter of women in service or being silent, is answered in the mystery of marriage:

Ephesians 5:22-32
22 Wives, submit to your own husbands, as to the Lord. 23 For the husband is head of the wife, as also Christ is head of the church; and He is the Savior of the body. 24 Therefore, just as the church is subject to Christ, so let the wives be to their own husbands in everything.

25 Husbands, love your wives, just as Christ also loved the church and gave Himself for her, 26 that He might sanctify and cleanse her with the washing of water by the word, 27 that He might present her to Himself a glorious church, not having spot or wrinkle or any such thing, but that she should be holy and without blemish. 28 So husbands ought to love their own wives as their own bodies; he who loves his wife loves himself. 29 For no one ever hated his own flesh, but nourishes and cherishes it, just as the Lord does the church. 30 For we are members of His body,of His flesh and of His bones. 31 “For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh.” 32 This is a great mystery, but I speak concerning Christ and the church.

...The mystery is revealed showing that all mankind is before God, as a women is before a man. Just as Eve was taken out of Adam, the bride of Christ was taken out of Christ.

Therefore, Paul counsels at times according to what is practical among people of the church, but also what it represents before God, and how we should view our perspective rolls. This is also why the majority of the lineage of the children of God, is male...because they are rather, children of God (whom the male represents). So, then, when Paul says that women should be silent in church, it is both practical, and respective of whom should be heard in church - meaning that neither men nor women should speak, but rather God alone should speak. So, whether it is God speaking through a man serving in his roll of portraying God (just as Christ is the male husband, and the church is the female bride by example), or by the gifts of the Holy Spirit of God - it is God alone who speaks to the church.

So, Paul came along side and supported those women who God had chosen to act by the Holy Spirit, to speak, to prophesy, or even to teach. But he then does not advise nor even allow women to be chosen of the church to be leaders and teachers, because if they are not chosen by God, they do not fit the roll which God has given in the creation and in marriage, that should be respected as proper representation of God in each perspective roll. And to do otherwise would be a disservice and disrespectful of God whom has designated each roll from the beginning.

Today, it is a matter of whom one serves. If God, then do not assume the role given to men. If the Holy Spirit, then speak in tongues, or interpret tongues, or a proclaim a word from God if given. But if ones self, then keep silent, and allow God to speak.

 

[101G]

This matter of women in service or being silent, is answered in the mystery of marriage:

this is my point, not every woman is Married.

The mystery is revealed showing that all mankind is before God, as a women is before a man. Just as Eve was taken out of Adam, the bride of Christ was taken out of Christ.

well I guess we need to throw out those "IN", Galatians 3:28 "There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus". again, not every woman is married. one cannot bring the institution ordained in the home to the body, to the body of Christ.

Therefore, Paul counsels at times according to what is practical among people of the church, but also what it represents before God, and how we should view our perspective rolls. This is also why the majority of the lineage of the children of God, is male...because they are rather, children of God (whom the male represents). So, then, when Paul says that women should be silent in church, it is both practical, and respective of whom should be heard in church - meaning that neither men nor women should speak, but rather God alone should speak. So, whether it is God speaking through a man serving in his roll of portraying God (just as Christ is the male husband, and the church is the female bride by example), or by the gifts of the Holy Spirit of God - it is God alone who speaks to the church.

I must strongly disagree with that assessment to a point. the spiritual Gifts are given to both men and women. there is no respect of person in Christ. no, just because I'm a husband I'm rewarded and my wife is not, and we suppose to be ONE?. cannot buy that.

So, Paul came along side and supported those women who God had chosen to act by the Holy Spirit, to speak, to prophesy, or even to teach. But he then does not advise nor even allow women to be chosen of the church to be leaders and teachers, because if they are not chosen by God, they do not fit the roll which God has given in the creation and in marriage, that should be respected as proper representation of God in each perspective roll. And to do otherwise would be a disservice and disrespectful of God whom has designated each roll from the beginning.

I agree to a point, because we don't know who God called. some men say that they was called, but was not. but the image of God is the EQUAL ANOTHER.

Today, it is a matter of whom one serves. If God, then do not assume the role given to men. If the Holy Spirit, then speak in tongues, or interpret tongues, or a proclaim a word from God if given. But if ones self, then keep silent, and allow God to speak.

Good, if the Holy Spirit Speak through a woman, who are we to withstand God?.

thanks for the reply, but I'm not moved at all in the beliefs of the scriptures.. I stand completely on the scriptures. now if you can point something out in scripture, please do, but if not the topic stands.

let me say this. why is it so many people just automatically reject what the scriptures says even after the truth is brought out. but as the apostle Paul said, "not all men have this knowledge".

peace in Christ.

 

[101G]

I told YOU that because of the polygamous culture of the 1st century, Paul was saying that polygamists couldn't be Bishops.
He wasn't saying that a single man couldn't be a Bishop.

GINOLJC,to all. going back over some of the responses. which is a good thing to do. it makes sure that your stance is correct. I notice what bol said above, and other, but I would like to address this one for now. since we have eliminated that a polygamists man couldn’t be a Bishop. 1 Timothy 3:2 "A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife, vigilant, sober, of good behaviour, given to hospitality, apt to teach”. Dose the wording in 1 Timothy 3:1 apply to only polygamists men? and not men or women in General, since as some say it was directed at polygamists men only. Lets look at this verse 1 again in 1 Timothy 3:1 "This is a true saying, If a man desire the office of a bishop, he desireth a good work”. so then if this is directed at polygamists men, then the qualification is only to them and not everyone else. or else if it's directed at only men in General, then the one wife rule apply. knowing this, a single man can be a Bishop, as well as a single Woman, she can be a bishop. because if the one woman rule do not apply to polygamists only then we have a big problem. And if a woman was a polygamists, as was the woman at the well, then these same rules must apply, only from the wife perspective. Then the wife must be of one husband. ect..... so likewise the Deacon, same rule must apply. because, 1 Timothy 3:8-12 "Likewise must the deacons be grave, not doubletongued, not given to much wine, not greedy of filthy lucre; Holding the mystery of the faith in a pure conscience. And let these also first be proved; then let them use the office of a deacon, being found blameless. Even so must their wives be grave, not slanderers, sober, faithful in all things. Let the deacons be the husbands of one wife, ruling their children and their own houses well".

well now, since these qualification are for polygamists, Male or female, then a woman as well as a man can be a Bishop or a Deacon. which means that our Sister Phebe was BOTH, a deacon, and a Bishop. ain't is great to have discussions in the Lord.

peace in Christ Jesus.

 

[epostle1]

well then what she doing shacking up with a man. because, 1 Timothy 2:13 "For Adam was first formed, then Eve. And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression". let's see was Adam and Eve married, or just shacking up. Hmmm....
excuses, excuses, excuses.

Adam and Eve does not prove women were ordained.

again can you not read?, do you not understand? understand bol, a husband teach his wife at HOME first, before she acts ignorant, and out of ORDER as in 1 Corinthians 14:34 "Let your women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak; but they are commanded to be under obedience, as also saith the law". see, bol. how do we know that this is speaking of wives? the very next verse tells us. 1 Corinthians 14:35 "And if they will learn any thing, let them ask their husbands at home: for it is a shame for women to speak in the church". see, bol G1135 γυνή gune (ǰ ï-nee') n.was used in that vers also as used in 1 Timothy 2:12 "But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence". that's how you get continuity of the scriptures.

Again, you contradict yourself.

so again you're refuted, and corrected.

No, this reinforces the fact that women were not ordained. You contradict yourself.

I hope you understand the difference now between G2338 θήλυς thelus (thee'-lïs) and G1135 γυνή gune (ǰ ï-nee') n. just get the context right and your exegesis will be correct.

"G2338 θήλυς thelus (thee'-lïs) and G1135 γυνή gune (ǰ ï-nee') n." doesn't prove women were ordained.

let's review, the woman wife thing was cleared up. the husband of, of, of, one wife was cleared up. the usurp authority over the man, was cleared up. the ordaining of women was cleared up.

If you mean you were refuted, then yes, they were cleared up.

so is there any more objections?. because there are many women preacher, teachers and Bishops in the bible.

Still waiting for a verse that says any woman was ordained. You play word games but give no scriptural evidence.

let's put a couple out there for you. Philippians 4:2 "I beseech Euodias, and beseech Syntyche, that they be of the same mind in the Lord. And I intreat thee also, true yokefellow, help those women which laboured with me in the gospel, with Clement also, and with other my fellowlabourers, whose names are in the book of life.

2 I urge Euodia and I urge Syntyche to be of the same mind in the Lord. 3 Yes, and I ask you also, my loyal companion, help these women, for they have struggled beside me in the work of the gospel, together with Clement and the rest of my co-workers, whose names are in the book of life.

Paul is instructing his loyal companion to help these women, it says nothing about "these women" being ordained. "have struggled beside me in the work of the gospel" does not mean these women were ordained. You are reading into the passage what isn't there.
Luke 2:36-37 – prophetesses, like Anna, were women who consecrated themselves to religious life, but were not ordained.
Mark 14:17,20; Luke 22:14 – the language “the twelve” and “apostles” shows Jesus commissioned the Eucharistic priesthood by giving holy orders only to men.

The Holy Catholic Church teaches, through Scripture and Tradition, that the husband is the head of his family and has God-given authority over his wife and children. This gift of authority does not give a husband any greater dignity than his wife. Both are equal members of the marital covenant, as is reflected by God creating woman from the side of man (as opposed to his head or feet). Instead, this order of authority reflects the divine order between God, Christ and man. God blessed the marital covenant with this order to maintain peace and harmony in the family, the “domestic church.” Just as Christ is the Head of the Catholic Church (the family of God), so the father is the head of his domestic church (his family).

Women priests in the Catholic view defies the order of authority designed by God. Churches that support women's ordination have a tendency to sanction contraception, abortion, euthanasia and same sex unions.

CLEVELAND, OH, October 12, 2015 (LifeSiteNews) -- More than a dozen religious leaders from a variety of denominations gathered last week to support abortion and "bless" a Cleveland abortion facility.​

Methodist, Episcopal clergy ‘bless’ Cleveland abortion clinic in prayer service

 

[BreadOfLife]

well then what she doing shacking up with a man. because, 1 Timothy 2:13 "For Adam was first formed, then Eve. And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression". let's see was Adam and Eve married, or just shacking up. Hmmm....
excuses, excuses, excuses.

again can you not read?, do you not understand? understand bol, a husband teach his wife at HOME first, before she acts ignorant, and out of ORDER as in 1 Corinthians 14:34 "Let your women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak; but they are commanded to be under obedience, as also saith the law". see, bol. how do we know that this is speaking of wives? the very next verse tells us. 1 Corinthians 14:35 "And if they will learn any thing, let them ask their husbands at home: for it is a shame for women to speak in the church". see, bol G1135 γυνή gune (ǰ ï-nee') n.was used in that vers also as used in 1 Timothy 2:12 "But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence". that's how you get continuity of the scriptures.

so again you're refuted, and corrected.

Wrong again.

You keep piecing verses together by jumping from chapter to chapter to make them say what YOU want them to say.
The plain fact of the matter is that you simply don't understand the idioms and nuances of the Greek language.

As I have shown you, γυνή gune (ǰ ï-nee') doe NOT always mean "wife." In fact, this is only a secondary definition because it also refers to Virgin as well as a married woman or a widow. You need to jump around to different chapters to create your own context in order to make your point - and that's where you fail.

Keep studying . . .

 

[epostle1]

 

[BreadOfLife]

well then what she doing shacking up with a man. because, 1 Timothy 2:13 "For Adam was first formed, then Eve. And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression". let's see was Adam and Eve married, or just shacking up. Hmmm....
excuses, excuses, excuses.

again can you not read?, do you not understand? understand bol, a husband teach his wife at HOME first, before she acts ignorant, and out of ORDER as in 1 Corinthians 14:34 "Let your women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak; but they are commanded to be under obedience, as also saith the law". see, bol. how do we know that this is speaking of wives? the very next verse tells us. 1 Corinthians 14:35 "And if they will learn any thing, let them ask their husbands at home: for it is a shame for women to speak in the church". see, bol G1135 γυνή gune (ǰ ï-nee') n.was used in that vers also as used in 1 Timothy 2:12 "But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence". that's how you get continuity of the scriptures.

so again you're refuted, and corrected.

According to Strong's Exhaustive Greek Concordance, this word shows up 224 times in the NT.
84 of those instances refer to "Wives".
130 times, it simply refers to "Women/Women".

Again, according to Strong's Exhaustive Greek Concordance in 1 Tim. 2:9-14, it refers to WOMEN - not "Wives".
You have been refuted by a reputable, scholarly source . . .

 

[101G]

Adam and Eve does not prove women were ordained.

Again, you contradict yourself.

No, this reinforces the fact that women were not ordained. You contradict yourself.

"G2338 θήλυς thelus (thee'-lïs) and G1135 γυνή gune (ǰ ï-nee') n." doesn't prove women were ordained.

If you mean you were refuted, then yes, they were cleared up.

Still waiting for a verse that says any woman was ordained. You play word games but give no scriptural evidence.



2 I urge Euodia and I urge Syntyche to be of the same mind in the Lord. 3 Yes, and I ask you also, my loyal companion, help these women, for they have struggled beside me in the work of the gospel, together with Clement and the rest of my co-workers, whose names are in the book of life.

Paul is instructing his loyal companion to help these women, it says nothing about "these women" being ordained. "have struggled beside me in the work of the gospel" does not mean these women were ordained. You are reading into the passage what isn't there.
Luke 2:36-37 – prophetesses, like Anna, were women who consecrated themselves to religious life, but were not ordained.
Mark 14:17,20; Luke 22:14 – the language “the twelve” and “apostles” shows Jesus commissioned the Eucharistic priesthood by giving holy orders only to men.

The Holy Catholic Church teaches, through Scripture and Tradition, that the husband is the head of his family and has God-given authority over his wife and children. This gift of authority does not give a husband any greater dignity than his wife. Both are equal members of the marital covenant, as is reflected by God creating woman from the side of man (as opposed to his head or feet). Instead, this order of authority reflects the divine order between God, Christ and man. God blessed the marital covenant with this order to maintain peace and harmony in the family, the “domestic church.” Just as Christ is the Head of the Catholic Church (the family of God), so the father is the head of his domestic church (his family).

Women priests in the Catholic view defies the order of authority designed by God. Churches that support women's ordination have a tendency to support contraception, abortion, euthanasia and same sex unions.

CLEVELAND, OH, October 12, 2015 (LifeSiteNews) -- More than a dozen religious leaders from a variety of denominations gathered last week to support abortion and "bless" a Cleveland abortion facility.​

Methodist, Episcopal clergy ‘bless’ Cleveland abortion clinic in prayer service

First thanks for the reply, but nothing you said change any thing. if you can give scripture, or research to contradict anything I have posted I will be glade to consider it. but as to what you have posted dose not meet that qualification

peace in Christ.

 

[101G]

As I have shown you, γυνή gune (ǰ ï-nee') doe NOT always mean "wife." In fact, this is only a secondary definition because it also refers to Virgin as well as a married woman or a widow. You need to jump around to different chapters to create your own context in order to make your point - and that's where you fail.

Keep studying . . .

According to Strong's Exhaustive Greek Concordance, this word shows up 224 times in the NT.
84 of those instances refer to "Wives".
130 times, it simply refers to "Women/Women".

Again, according to Strong's Exhaustive Greek Concordance in 1 Tim. 2:9-14, it refers to WOMEN - not "Wives".
You have been refuted by a reputable, scholarly source . .

I want to get both of these together and kill them with one stone. let's see if G1135 γυνή gune (ǰ ï-nee') n. means woman all the time in Context of Scriptures.
G1135 γυνή gune (ǰ ï-nee') n.
1. a woman.
2. (specially) a wife.

1 Corinthians 14:34 "Let your women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak; but they are commanded to be under obedience, as also saith the law.1 Corinthians 14:35 "And if they will learn any thing, let them ask their husbands at home: for it is a shame for women to speak in the church".

here clearly, the Greek word G1135 γυνή gune (ǰ ï-nee') is used as a "WIFE", because the only "Woman" who have a husband is a married one better known as a "WIFE". My God common sense kicks in some where.

now in 1 Timothy 2:12 "But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence". here, G1135 γυνή gune (ǰ ï-nee') n. the exact same word in 1 Corinthians 14:34 & 35. so how do we know that this is speaking of a "WIFE" and not women in General. verse 15 tells us. 1 Timothy 2:15 "Notwithstanding she shall be saved in childbearing, if they continue in faith and charity and holiness with sobriety". if they, they, they, "continue in faith and charity and holiness with sobriety". they tells us that they are man and wife. but the kicker here is the first word in verse 15, "Notwithstanding". used as a conjunction, which mean, although; in spite of the fact that. ok, what FACT? 1 Timothy 2:14 "And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression". Eve was his "WIFE" who was in the transgression. but saved in childbearing?. the only woman who suppose to bear children is a wife, legally speaking.

so bol your argument is null and void by scripture.

 

[epostle1]

I want to get both of these together and kill them with one stone. let's see if G1135 γυνή gune (ǰ ï-nee') n. means woman all the time in Context of Scriptures.
G1135 γυνή gune (ǰ ï-nee') n.
1. a woman.
2. (specially) a wife.

1 Corinthians 14:34 "Let your women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak; but they are commanded to be under obedience, as also saith the law.1 Corinthians 14:35 "And if they will learn any thing, let them ask their husbands at home: for it is a shame for women to speak in the church".

here clearly, the Greek word G1135 γυνή gune (ǰ ï-nee') is used as a "WIFE", because the only "Woman" who have a husband is a married one better known as a "WIFE". My God common sense kicks in some where.

now in 1 Timothy 2:12 "But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence". here, G1135 γυνή gune (ǰ ï-nee') n. the exact same word in 1 Corinthians 14:34 & 35. so how do we know that this is speaking of a "WIFE" and not women in General. verse 15 tells us. 1 Timothy 2:15 "Notwithstanding she shall be saved in childbearing, if they continue in faith and charity and holiness with sobriety". if they, they, they, "continue in faith and charity and holiness with sobriety". they tells us that they are man and wife. but the kicker here is the first word in verse 15, "Notwithstanding". used as a conjunction, which mean, although; in spite of the fact that. ok, what FACT? 1 Timothy 2:14 "And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression". Eve was his "WIFE" who was in the transgression. but saved in childbearing?. the only woman who suppose to bear children is a wife, legally speaking.

so bol your argument is null and void by scripture.

I have given several scriptures indicating women are NEVER ordained, you haven't given any to the contrary. WIFE does not equal ordination. WOMAN does not equal ordination. More word games...

 

[epostle1]

First thanks for the reply, but nothing you said change any thing. if you can give scripture, or research to contradict anything I have posted I will be glade to consider it. but as to what you have posted dose not meet that qualification

peace in Christ.

You have no business making unbiblical assertions you can't back up. You haven't posted a single verse supporting women's ordination and I have posted several to the contrary. You just ignore them.

 

[101G]

I have given several scriptures indicating women are NEVER ordained, you haven't given any to the contrary. WIFE does not equal ordination. WOMAN does not equal ordination. More word games...

did I not give it to you? Oh well listen, 1 Corinthians 12:28 "And God hath set some in the church, first apostles, secondarily prophets, thirdly teachers, after that miracles, then gifts of healings, helps, governments, diversities of tongues". the Greek word "SET" here is
G5087 τίθημι tithemi (tiy'-thee-miy) v.
θέω theo (the'-ō) [an alternate in certain tenses]
1. to place.
2. (properly) to lay in a passive or horizontal posture.
{in the widest application, literally and figuratively; differs from G2476, which properly denotes an upright and active position, while G2749 is properly reflexive and utterly prostrate}
[a prolonged form of a primary theo theh'-o (which is used only as alternate in certain tenses)]
KJV: + advise, appoint, bow, commit, conceive, give, X kneel down, lay (aside, down, up), make, ordain, purpose, put, set (forth), settle, sink down
see, the word according to the KJV, it can be translate as "appoint", or "Ordain". and now are their women prophets? yes, case closed.

 

[101G]

You have no business making unbiblical assertions you can't back up. You haven't posted a single verse supporting women's ordination and I have posted several to the contrary. You just ignore them.

what authority you have to stop me? (smile). second, if anything I have posted and is not bibical point it out,... well.

 

[BreadOfLife]

I want to get both of these together and kill them with one stone. let's see if G1135 γυνή gune (ǰ ï-nee') n. means woman all the time in Context of Scriptures.
G1135 γυνή gune (ǰ ï-nee') n.
1. a woman.
2. (specially) a wife.

1 Corinthians 14:34 "Let your women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak; but they are commanded to be under obedience, as also saith the law.1 Corinthians 14:35 "And if they will learn any thing, let them ask their husbands at home: for it is a shame for women to speak in the church".

here clearly, the Greek word G1135 γυνή gune (ǰ ï-nee') is used as a "WIFE", because the only "Woman" who have a husband is a married one better known as a "WIFE". My God common sense kicks in some where.

now in 1 Timothy 2:12 "But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence". here, G1135 γυνή gune (ǰ ï-nee') n. the exact same word in 1 Corinthians 14:34 & 35. so how do we know that this is speaking of a "WIFE" and not women in General. verse 15 tells us. 1 Timothy 2:15 "Notwithstanding she shall be saved in childbearing, if they continue in faith and charity and holiness with sobriety". if they, they, they, "continue in faith and charity and holiness with sobriety". they tells us that they are man and wife. but the kicker here is the first word in verse 15, "Notwithstanding". used as a conjunction, which mean, although; in spite of the fact that. ok, what FACT? 1 Timothy 2:14 "And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression". Eve was his "WIFE" who was in the transgression. but saved in childbearing?. the only woman who suppose to bear children is a wife, legally speaking.

so bol your argument is null and void by scripture.

And, according to Strong's Exhaustive Greek Concordance - YOU are wrong.

Paul is using a word that is speaking of women in general. He later addresses the married ones - but his earlier use of the word is a sweeping generalization.

Again - YOUR problem is that you are trying to inject your own meaning into the text because you want it to say something else. That, coupled with your woeful ignorance of other languages makes a perfect cocktail of total and complete cluelessness.

I can point you to some really good Scripture studies if you're interested in learning what the Bible has to say.
Wallowing in total ignorance is no way to approach the word of God . . .

 

[101G]

And, according to Strong's Exhaustive Greek Concordance - YOU are wrong.

Paul is using a word that is speaking of women in general. He later addresses the married ones - but his earlier use of the word is a sweeping generalization.

Again - YOUR problem is that you are trying to inject your own meaning into the text because you want it to say something else. That, coupled with your woeful ignorance of other languages makes a perfect cocktail of total and complete cluelessness.

I can point you to some really good Scripture studies if you're interested in learning what the Bible has to say.
Wallowing in total ignorance is no way to approach the word of God . . .

Paul is using a word that is speaking of women in general. He later addresses the married ones. now who is injecting their own opinion. context, context, context. common sense comes into play sometimes. but nothing you have said, changes what I posted. NOTHING..... (smile). until you can get research or another scripture to counter what I have posted, your assessment is NULL and VOID.

Wallowing in total ignorance is no way to approach the word of God

I'm glade you said that, so get out of that hog pen. and be like the prodigal son and repent....

 

[BreadOfLife]

Paul is using a word that is speaking of women in general. He later addresses the married ones. now who is injecting their own opinion. context, context, context. common sense comes into play sometimes. but nothing you have said, changes what I posted. NOTHING..... (smile). until you can get research or another scripture to counter what I have posted, your assessment is NULL and VOID.

I'm glade you said that, so get out of that hog pen. and be like the prodigal son and repent....

I presented the evidence from a consensus of Greek scholarship - and all you've done is rehash the same old opinions of an ignorant Bible student.

Consider yourself Scripturally-and linguistically spanked . . .

 

[101G]

I presented the evidence from a consensus of Greek scholarship - and all you've done is rehash the same old opinions of an ignorant Bible student.

Consider yourself Scripturally-and linguistically spanked . . .

spanked?. that's child play. 1 Corinthians 13:11 "When I was a child, I spake as a child, I understood as a child, I thought as a child: but when I became a man, I put away childish things". so grow up, spanking?. ........... LOL, ........ (smile).
now if you can't present grown up information, then you may go out to play...... .

until some real data.... good day. vain jangling is not my cup of tea.

 

[epostle1]

Was the Church at Roman, under the direction of a female Bishop. Reading Roman Chapter 16, the Evidence seems to say yes. but why are there no recording of this beside the bible, if it's true.

what do you say on this topic. opinions are good, but we want facts, back up by hard evidence, and let's have a good debate.

I'm of the belief that our sister Phebe was the Church at Rome first Bishop.

Still waiting for the verse that says Pheobe
or any other woman was ordained.​

 

[101G]

Still waiting for the verse that says Pheobe
or any other woman was ordained.​

keep on waiting, it'll sink in sooner or later. ignorance is just like sin, it leads to death.. .

next!

 

[epostle1]

keep on waiting, it'll sink sooner or later. ignorance is just like sin, it leads to death.. .

next!

Protestantism has been compelled to rewrite all history according to it’s own necessities. As French historian Augustin Thierry has written, “To live, Protestantism found itself forced to build up a history of its own.”

John Henry Cardinal Newman (1801-1890), the great English convert to Catholicism, who is widely regarded as one of the most profound religious thinkers of his time, wrote in his Essay on the Development of Christian Doctrine (1845), the one indispensable work on this subject:

One thing at least is certain; whatever history teaches . . . at least the Christianity of history is not Protestantism. If ever there were a safe truth, it is this. And Protestantism . . . as a whole, feels it, and has felt it. This is shown in the determination . . . of dispensing with historical Christianity altogether, and of forming a Christianity from the Bible alone . . . To be deep in history is to cease to be a Protestant.
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In other words, forming a history of Christianity from the Bible alone is IMPOSSIBLE.

First Council of Nicaea (325) First Council of Constantinople (381) First Council of Ephesus (431) Council of Chalcedon (451) ALL clarified the Trinity due to challenging heresies.

Here is a list of women bishops attending these councils:

As far back as the third century, Irenaeus and Tertullian denounced gnostic and Marcionite heretics for letting women perform priestly functions. In the fourth century St. Epiphanius of Salamis condemned the Montanists for claiming that the difference between the sexes had been abolished in Christ, and for consequently ordaining women as presbyters and bishops. St. Epiphanius pointed to our Lord’s deliberate choice of twelve men as Apostles and added that if a woman could be ordained, “it would have been more proper to Mary than to anyone else in the New Testament to exercise a priestly role.” Not only did our Lord include no woman among the twelve, but the Apostles did not appoint one among their successors. The tradition of the Church is unbroken, and the fundamental reason behind it is the will of Christ.

In the third and fourth centuries the Didascalia and Apostolic Constitutions also justified reserving priestly ordination to men as “the will of Christ” and the “law of the Gospel.” It was noted that the Virgin Mary and the holy women in our Lord’s company were not sent to teach because the Lord “knew the arrangement of nature…being as he was the architect of nature.” As the “author of human nature” and “giver of the law,” our Savior knew best how to assign responsibilities. Likewise, in the Middle Ages, the Scholastics were “unanimous” in saying that women could not be ordained, some adding that any attempted ordination would be invalid. The point about the Virgin Mary found its way into the canonical collection of papal decretals, to emphasize that the exclusion of women from the priesthood was not related to their dignity but to “determination by Christ.”
Early Church Fathers Women's Ordination

You are simply rehashing the same gnostic, Marcionite and Montanist heresies of the 3rd century.