“Everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved.” (Acts 2:21)
At Romans 10:13 Paul also repeated this quote from both Joel and Zephaniah. (Joel 2:32; Zeph 3:9)
How does the Jewish Tanakh translate those verses?
Joel….God’s name is used three times in that one verse.
| And it shall come to pass that whoever shall call in the name of the Lord shall be delivered, for on Mount Zion and in Jerusalem there shall be a deliverance, as the Lord said, and among the survivors whom the Lord invites. | | הוְהָיָ֗ה כֹּ֧ל אֲשֶׁר־יִקְרָ֛א בְּשֵׁ֥ם יְהֹוָ֖ה יִמָּלֵ֑ט כִּ֠י בְּהַר־צִיּ֨וֹן וּבִירֽוּשָׁלִַ֜ם תִּֽהְיֶ֣ה פְלֵיטָ֗ה כַּֽאֲשֶׁר֙ אָמַ֣ר יְהֹוָ֔ה וּבַ֨שְּׂרִידִ֔ים אֲשֶׁ֥ר יְהֹוָ֖ה קֹרֵֽא: |
Zephaniah…
| For then I will convert the peoples to a pure language that all of them call in the name of the Lord, to worship Him of one accord. | | טכִּי־אָ֛ז אֶהְפֹּ֥ךְ אֶל־עַמִּ֖ים שָׂפָ֣ה בְרוּרָ֑ה לִקְרֹ֚א כֻלָּם֙ בְּשֵׁ֣ם יְהֹוָ֔ה לְעָבְד֖וֹ שְׁכֶ֥ם אֶחָֽד: |
In the English translation we see the Jewish custom of substituting God’s name for a title (“the Lord”)…but in the Hebrew text, the Tetragrammaton is clearly visible….
יְהֹוָ֔ה.
Now, although God’s name was lost to Jewish speech, we see that it did not disappear from their Scripture.
Christendom OTOH removed God’s name altogether from almost all Bible translations, but as was the case with Israel, they did not have God’s command or sanction to do so….in fact this was contrary to the command from their God to retain the divine name in every generation.
Exodus 3:15…
| And God said further to Moses, "So shall you say to the children of Israel, 'The Lord God of your forefathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, has sent me to you.' This is My name forever, and this is how I should be mentioned in every generation. | | טווַיֹּ֩אמֶר֩ ע֨וֹד אֱלֹהִ֜ים אֶל־משֶׁ֗ה כֹּ֣ה תֹאמַר֘ אֶל־בְּנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵל֒ יְהֹוָ֞ה אֱלֹהֵ֣י אֲבֹֽתֵיכֶ֗ם אֱלֹהֵ֨י אַבְרָהָ֜ם אֱלֹהֵ֥י יִצְחָ֛ק וֵֽאלֹהֵ֥י יַֽעֲקֹ֖ב שְׁלָחַ֣נִי אֲלֵיכֶ֑ם זֶה־שְּׁמִ֣י לְעֹלָ֔ם וְזֶ֥ה זִכְרִ֖י |
“The Lord God” of their forefathers was “Yahweh”. His name was to be “mentioned” which indicates human speech.
Do we have an excuse to deny the sacred name of the one true God?
Does the fact that we cannot say it accurately in Hebrew, mean that we should avoid saying it altogether? And is Hebrew the only language that can covey the true meaning of God’s name? (“I Will Be What I Will Be”) as it is translated from the Hebrew.
Exodus 3:13-15
As the creator of all languages, God knows his name in any tongue, because he is a reader of hearts, and knows those who hold his unique name in reverence, no matter how they might pronounce it.
If those who believe in the trinity can say Jesus’ name in English, why do they hold back from saying the Father’s name in English?
“Jesus” is not his name in Hebrew. According to Strongs it is “
yᵊhôšûaʿ ….Joshua or Jehoshua“ meaning "Jehovah is salvation".
Joshua is even a common name to this day, as it was in Bible times. One of only two original members of the exodus to survive the wilderness journey, and enter into the Promised Land, was named Joshua.
Can someone explain that to me? If calling on the name of “Yahweh” means being “saved”, then what happens if we are calling on the wrong name? “Jesus” was the name given to the son of God at the command of God’s messenger, Gabriel.…an important name, but not the name of his Father whom he said he had come to “make his name known”. (John 17:26)
John 17:6 Jesus said….
”I have made your name manifest to the men whom you gave me out of the world.”
The word “manifest“ is “
phaneroō” and it means “to make manifest or visible or known what has been hidden or unknown”.
Jesus came to reinstate the divine name to his Jewish apostles…..the one that Israel had failed to honor in all their generations as God had commanded them through Moses.
Is Christendom doing exactly the same thing? How did God’s name get lost…twice?