Hidden in plain sight: Why I believe this about the Revelation

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Zao is life

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"There is therefore now no condemnation for those who are in Christ Jesus"
No condemnation for those who are in Whom? Santa Claus?

John 15
6 If a man abide not in me, he is cast forth as a branch, and is withered; and men gather them, and cast them into the fire, and they are burned.

Is Jesus saying that if we stop trusting in Santa and believing in Santa we will be cast out and will wither and be burned?

Or is He saying that if we stop trusting in HIM (Jesus) and believing in HIM we will be cast out and will wither and be burned?
 

PinSeeker

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You obviously have not been following the conversation...
Not all of it, but it goes back and forth and the same points (and "points") get made over and over and over again. It's like a soap opera, really, you can take a decade off and then pick it back up and it's as if you were never away at all... <smile>

or you would know that Revelation 20:1-3 states that Satan will be bound in terms of his ability to deceive the nations - which has not happened because his power to deceive the nations is given to his words of deception by those who believe them (not by God).
I know that Revelation 20:1-3 states that Satan has been bound in terms of his ability to deceive the nations, which is what SI is saying... although maybe not as effectively as could be... <smile>

Besides this, none of the scriptures you post above are saying anything about Satan being bound in terms of his ability to deceive the nations.
In your opinion, and that's mainly because you don't understand correctly what it means to "deceive the nations." Which... we have discussed.

In Genesis chapter 3, we read of how Satan appeared in the Garden of Eden and deceived mankind.
Revelation 12:9 calls Satan "the great dragon" and "the old serpent called Devil, and Satan, who deceives the whole world."
The reason given for Satan being bound in Revelation 20:1-3 is that he should deceive the nations no more until the thousand years have expired.
And I have said, and will say again here, that his ability to deceive people ~ "members" of mankind... ~ is a very different thing than what John is referring to in his vision as Satan's deception of the nations. I totally get that you either do not see or refuse to acknowledge the difference between those two things, but it is what it is. You're conflating the two.

"And when the thousand years are expired, Satan shall be loosed out of his prison, And shall go out to deceive the nations which are in the four quarters of the earth, Gog and Magog, to gather them together to battle: the number of whom is as the sand of the sea." (Revelation 20:7-8).

If we look for statements in the New Testament implying that Satan was bound when Jesus died and rose again, all we will ever find is passages stating the opposite...
The only place in the New Testament besides Revelation 20 where we see anything regarding Satan being bound is in Matthew 12:28-29 ~ "...if it is by the Spirit of God that I cast out demons, then the kingdom of God has come upon you. Or how can someone enter a strong man’s house and plunder his goods, unless he first binds the strong man?" You said later in this post that the house in Jesus's parable "represents the demon-possessed man out of whom Jesus had cast out demons (not 'the nations')", and to that I say the house represents neither of those two things, but rather the world... really all its inhabitants, so all of mankind, who "by nature are children of wrath" (Paul, Ephesians 2), "children of the devil, whose will is to do the will of their father" (Jesus, John 8).

Your Amil arguments have already been dealt with in this thread...
So the "thinking" goes... <smile>

and the scriptures you bring up have nothing to do with Satan's ability to deceive the nations.
In your opinion.

Stop conflating...
That's you, Zao. I don't mean to disparage; I mean no disrespect. But it is what it is; it's all you.

Grace and peace to you.
 

ScottA

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Do you believe that God's law was made obsolete in the blood of Christ circa 30 Ad or did it wait for 70 A.D to become obsolete?
Do you believe that the temple in Jerusalem was no longer the temple of God, nor was it the holy place from the day the veil in that temple was torn?

If you are a Preterist or Preterist in part then please don't talk unbiblical gibberish to me. Your theology is so full of falsehood it won't end and I do not talk to Preterists or Partial Preterists.

If you are not, then say you are not and I will apologize and answer your questions. Otherwise I will ignore your posts.
I am not a Preterist (they too have been in error).

As for the law and the temple of God, it was never of the world.
 

Spiritual Israelite

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I know that Revelation 20:1-3 states that Satan has been bound in terms of his ability to deceive the nations, which is what SI is saying... although maybe not as effectively as could be... <smile>
LOL. I see that you are making about the same amount of headway with him as I have (none), so does that mean you are not making your point as effectively as could be or is it just impossible to get him to understand how we Amils understand Satan's binding and what it means for him to deceive the nations (ethnos)?

The only place in the New Testament besides Revelation 20 where we see anything regarding Satan being bound is in Matthew 12:28-29 ~ "...if it is by the Spirit of God that I cast out demons, then the kingdom of God has come upon you. Or how can someone enter a strong man’s house and plunder his goods, unless he first binds the strong man?" You said later in this post that the house in Jesus's parable "represents the demon-possessed man out of whom Jesus had cast out demons (not 'the nations')", and to that I say the house represents neither of those two things, but rather the world... really all its inhabitants, so all of mankind, who "by nature are children of wrath" (Paul, Ephesians 2), "children of the devil, whose will is to do the will of their father" (Jesus, John 8).
It's interesting how the same people who insist that Satan's binding in Revelation 20 renders him to be completely incapacitated would not try to say the same thing about the binding of the strong man in Matthew 12:28-29. They can recognize that the strong man is bound only from doing certain things rather than being completely incapacitated, but somehow conclude that his binding in Revelation 20 means he is bound from doing anything at all. No, it only says he is bound from deceiving the nations. They think that is referring ot his general ability to deceive, but we know it has to do with his ability to prevent the gospel from going to all of the nations (through the whole world), which was not the case in Old Testament times when the Gentiles had "no hope" and were "without God in the world" (Eph 2:11-12). During that time Satan had the power of death which he was able to use to keep people as slaves to the fear of death, but Jesus took that away by His death (Hebrews 2:14-15).
 

Davidpt

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In your opinion, and that's mainly because you don't understand correctly what it means to "deceive the nations." Which... we have discussed.

In the book of Revelation in the KJV the following phrase 'no more' can be found in the following passages.

Revelation 3:12 Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my God, and the name of the city of my God, which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God: and I will write upon him my new name.

Revelation 7:16 They shall hunger no more, neither thirst any more; neither shall the sun light on them, nor any heat.

Revelation 18:14 And the fruits that thy soul lusted after are departed from thee, and all things which were dainty and goodly are departed from thee, and thou shalt find them no more at all.

Revelation 18:21 And a mighty angel took up a stone like a great millstone, and cast it into the sea, saying, Thus with violence shall that great city Babylon be thrown down, and shall be found no more at all.

Revelation 18:22 And the voice of harpers, and musicians, and of pipers, and trumpeters, shall be heard no more at all in thee; and no craftsman, of whatsoever craft he be, shall be found any more in thee; and the sound of a millstone shall be heard no more at all in thee;

Revelation 18:23 And the light of a candle shall shine no more at all in thee; and the voice of the bridegroom and of the bride shall be heard no more at all in thee: for thy merchants were the great men of the earth; for by thy sorceries were all nations deceived.

Revelation 20:3 And cast him into the bottomless pit, and shut him up, and set a seal upon him, that he should deceive the nations no more, till the thousand years should be fulfilled: and after that he must be loosed a little season.

Revelation 21:1 And I saw a new heaven and a new earth: for the first heaven and the first earth were passed away; and there was no more sea.

Revelation 21:4 And God shall wipe away all tears from their eyes; and there shall be no more death, neither sorrow, nor crying, neither shall there be any more pain: for the former things are passed away.

Revelation 22:3 And there shall be no more curse: but the throne of God and of the Lamb shall be in it; and his servants shall serve him:

What you need to do now is this. Show how 'no more' means the same thing in these other verses that you have 'no more' meaning in Revelation 20:3. It is not reasonable, that if there are 10 passages with this same phrase 'no more' in the book of Revelation, that only 9 of them means exactly what it says. In one of them 'no more' does not mean exactly what it says.

For example, Revelation 18:21. Show how 'no more' in that verse means the same thing you take it to mean in Revelation 20:3.

The point being, in the book of Revelation, either 'no more' means exactly what it says or it doesn't. We can't be cherry picking here. That's called doctrinal bias.

Obviously, in Revelation 20:3 'no more' means the same thing 'no more' means in Revelation 18:2 and these other passages. Except it is only meaning 'no more' during the duration of the thousand years. But even so, it is still meaning 'no more' in the same sense it is meaning 'no more' in these other verses.
 
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Spiritual Israelite

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In the book of Revelation in the KJV the following phrase 'no more' can be found in the following passages.

Revelation 3:12 Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my God, and the name of the city of my God, which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God: and I will write upon him my new name.

Revelation 7:16 They shall hunger no more, neither thirst any more; neither shall the sun light on them, nor any heat.

Revelation 18:14 And the fruits that thy soul lusted after are departed from thee, and all things which were dainty and goodly are departed from thee, and thou shalt find them no more at all.

Revelation 18:21 And a mighty angel took up a stone like a great millstone, and cast it into the sea, saying, Thus with violence shall that great city Babylon be thrown down, and shall be found no more at all.

Revelation 18:22 And the voice of harpers, and musicians, and of pipers, and trumpeters, shall be heard no more at all in thee; and no craftsman, of whatsoever craft he be, shall be found any more in thee; and the sound of a millstone shall be heard no more at all in thee;

Revelation 18:23 And the light of a candle shall shine no more at all in thee; and the voice of the bridegroom and of the bride shall be heard no more at all in thee: for thy merchants were the great men of the earth; for by thy sorceries were all nations deceived.

Revelation 20:3 And cast him into the bottomless pit, and shut him up, and set a seal upon him, that he should deceive the nations no more, till the thousand years should be fulfilled: and after that he must be loosed a little season.

Revelation 21:1 And I saw a new heaven and a new earth: for the first heaven and the first earth were passed away; and there was no more sea.

Revelation 21:4 And God shall wipe away all tears from their eyes; and there shall be no more death, neither sorrow, nor crying, neither shall there be any more pain: for the former things are passed away.

Revelation 22:3 And there shall be no more curse: but the throne of God and of the Lamb shall be in it; and his servants shall serve him:

What you need to do now is this. Show how 'no more' means the same thing in these other verses that you have 'no more' meaning in Revelation 20:3. It is not reasonable, that if there are 10 passages with this same phrase 'no more' in the book of Revelation, that only 9 of them means exactly what it says. In one of them 'no more' does not mean exactly what it says.

For example, Revelation 18:21. Show how 'no more' in that verse means the same thing you take it to mean in Revelation 20:3.

The point being, in the book of Revelation, either 'no more' means exactly what it says or it doesn't. We can't be cherry picking here. That's called doctrinal bias.

Obviously, in Revelation 20:3 'no more' means the same thing 'no more' means in Revelation 18:2 and these other passages. Except it is only meaning 'no more' during the duration of the thousand years. But even so, it is still meaning 'no more' in the same sense it is meaning 'no more' in these other verses.
David, I've told you this a few times before but you never "listen". Amils do not deny what it means when it says "no more". We believe that Satan can deceive the nations no more during the thousand years. The difference between how Amils interpret Revelation 20 and how Premils interpret it has nothing to do with Premils accepting where it says "no more" while Amils don't. No, that is just another in your long line of straw man arguments that you waste your time making.

Again, the difference between Amil and Premil is not in regards to what "no more" means, but rather in regards to what "deceive the nations" means. Premils think it refers to Satan's general ability to deceive and they think his binding leaves him incapacitated. Amils, in contrast, see that as a reference to his ability to keep the nations in spiritual darkness while keeping the word of God from shining light there while at the same time keeping people in slavery to the fear of death while having no hope of anything after death.

But, the preaching of the gospel through the power of the Holy Spirit in New Testament times has shined light in the world where it never had light before. In Old Testament times Paul said that the Gentiles had "no hope" and were "without God in the world" (Ephesians 2:11-12). But, because of Christ's sacrifice on the cross and His resurrection, that all changed. Jesus took the power of death away from the devil (Hebrews 2:14-15) and the light of the gospel has shone throughout the world bringing the hope of eternal life to a lost world that the vast majority of the world did not have in Old Testament times. It set many people free from being in slavery to the fear of death. Satan was "no more" able to keep the world in spiritual darkness and prevent the light of the word of God from shining in the world after Christ's death and resurrection.
 

Zao is life

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It only says he is bound from deceiving the nations. They think that is referring ot his general ability to deceive, but we know it has to do with his ability to prevent the gospel from going to all of the nations
In other words, "They believe what the text says and do not add to the scripture.

But we Amils add to scripture the following: .. and thus he has been rendered unable to prevent the spread of the gospel from going to all the nations - and this is because the destruction of Satan's power over death has made it possible for God to get the gospel to spread to all nations."

It's confused gibberish that in effect asserts that God is not omnipotent and the Holy Spirit in the world does not suffice to get the gospel out to all nations.
 

Spiritual Israelite

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In other words, "They believe what the text says and do not add to the scripture.
LOL. So, we should be looking out for a literal beast with seven literal heads and ten literal horns? I mean, that's what the text says. You apparently think that if we don't take something as literally as possible then we are adding to the scripture.

To be consistent this means you should believe that the number of nations being deceived is "as the sand of the sea" since that is what the text says. No chance the the Greek word "ethnos" might mean something other than "nations" (such as "heathen") in Revelation 20, right? Because it says what it says. The Bible was, after all, written in English, right? Or not?

But we Amils add to scripture the following: .. and thus he has been rendered unable to prevent the spread of the gospel from going to all the nations - and this is because the destruction of Satan's power over death has made it possible for God to get the gospel to spread to all nations."

It's confused gibberish that in effect asserts that God is not omnipotent and the Holy Spirit in the world does not suffice to get the gospel out to all nations.
You speak nothing but gibberish whenever you speak about what Amils believe since you do not understand what we believe. To think that you understand what we believe even more than we do is nothing less than complete foolishness. Amils do NOT assert "that God is not omnipotent and the Holy Spirit in the world does not suffice to get the gospel out to all nations" as you falsely claim. We claim that the gospel being preached throughout the world through the power of the Holy Spirit is what binds and restrains Satan from being able to keep the world in spiritual darkness like he was able to do in Old Testament times.
 

Davidpt

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David, I've told you this a few times before but you never "listen". Amils do not deny what it means when it says "no more". We believe that Satan can deceive the nations no more during the thousand years. The difference between how Amils interpret Revelation 20 and how Premils interpret it has nothing to do with Premils accepting where it says "no more" while Amils don't. No, that is just another in your long line of straw man arguments that you waste your time making.

Again, the difference between Amil and Premil is not in regards to what "no more" means, but rather in regards to what "deceive the nations" means. Premils think it refers to Satan's general ability to deceive and they think his binding leaves him incapacitated. Amils, in contrast, see that as a reference to his ability to keep the nations in spiritual darkness while keeping the word of God from shining light there while at the same time keeping people in slavery to the fear of death while having no hope of anything after death.

But, the preaching of the gospel through the power of the Holy Spirit in New Testament times has shined light in the world where it never had light before. In Old Testament times Paul said that the Gentiles had "no hope" and were "without God in the world" (Ephesians 2:11-12). But, because of Christ's sacrifice on the cross and His resurrection, that all changed. Jesus took the power of death away from the devil (Hebrews 2:14-15) and the light of the gospel has shone throughout the world bringing the hope of eternal life to a lost world that the vast majority of the world did not have in Old Testament times. It set many people free from being in slavery to the fear of death. Satan was "no more" able to keep the world in spiritual darkness and prevent the light of the word of God from shining in the world after Christ's death and resurrection.

In my mind, Amils do not take 'no more' in Revelation 20:3 to mean exactly what it says, if, in reality, any nations are still being deceived during the millennium. That's hardly the same thing 'no more' means in Revelation 18:21, for example.

All I'm asking, take Revelation 18:21, for instance. Show how Amils are applying 'no more' in Revelation 20:3 can also fit with how 'no more' is being applied in Revelation 18:21 or any of these other verses in Revelation where this same phrase is used.
 
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Spiritual Israelite

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In my mind, Amils do not take 'no more' in Revelation 20:3 to mean exactly what it says, if, in reality, any nations are still being deceived during the millennium. That's hardly the same thing 'no more' means in Revelation 18:21, for example.
I don't care what's in your flawed mind. You just don't get it. As Amils understand Satan's binding (which you don't understand at all), he can deceive the nations no more during the thousand years and not again until he is loosed when the thousand years are over.

All I'm asking, take Revelation 18:21, for instance. Show how Amils are applying 'no more' in Revelation 20:3 can also fit with how 'no more' is being applied in Revelation 18:21 or any of these other verses in Revelation where this same phrase is used.
I already have done that several times, and you just don't get it. When he was bound he was not able to keep the nations of the world in spiritual darkness in New Testament times no more like he was able to do in Old Testament times. You don't even attempt to understand this from the Amil perspective for whatever reason. You always look at his binding only from the Premil perspective.
 
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Zao is life

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Satan was "no more" able to keep the world in spiritual darkness and prevent the light of the word of God from shining in the world after Christ's death and resurrection.
Satan was never able to keep the world in spiritual darkness. What you are saying implies that Noah, Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, Joseph, Moses .... etc etc were all in spiritual darkness and that no Gentiles were ever added to Israel having come to faith in the God of Israel before the time of Christ.

Paul said that the full meaning of the gospel was a mystery until Christ came. That's all.

God is omnipotent and Satan could not ever prevent the light of the Word of God from shining in the world.

John 1
5 And the light shineth in darkness; and the darkness comprehended it not.

Amil comprehends the above not.
 

Spiritual Israelite

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Satan was never able to keep the world in spiritual darkness. What you are saying implies that Noah, Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, Joseph, Moses .... etc etc were all in spiritual darkness and that no Gentiles were ever added to Israel having come to faith in the God of Israel before the time of Christ.
That's not what I'm saying and you know it! I have said many times that he kept the vast majority of the world in spiritual darkness with few exceptions. I have said that about the Gentiles in particular because I have pointed out many times how Paul said that in Old Testament times the Gentiles had "no hope" and were "without God in the world". You know that few Gentiles were saved in Old Testament times. But, Revelation 7:9 describes a great multitude that no one can count from all nations being saved (Revelation 7:9). Clearly, a vast majority of them have been saved in New Testament times.

Paul said that the full meaning of the gospel was a mystery until Christ came. That's all.

God is omnipotent and Satan could not ever prevent the light of the Word of God from shining in the world.
He did prevent that because God allowed it. You falsely, deceptively and wickedly claim that I say that Satan was more powerful than God, but that is not the case. I would not say such a horrible thing. Of course, Satan can only do what God allows him to do. That does without saying. So, any time I talk about what Satan was able to do or not able to do it's always in the context of what God allows.

John 1
5 And the light shineth in darkness; and the darkness comprehended it not.

Amil comprehends the above not.
Your slander is making you look like nothing more than an evil fool. Stop the slander already!

That verse is talking about the fact that the darkness does not overcome the light because the light is greater than the darkness. Those who belong to the light (Jesus) are able to overcome the darkness.

John 1:5 The light shines in the darkness, and the darkness has not overcome it.

John 8:12 When Jesus spoke again to the people, he said, “I am the light of the world. Whoever follows me will never walk in darkness, but will have the light of life.”

John 12:46 I have come into the world as a light, so that no one who believes in me should stay in darkness.
 

Zao is life

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I have pointed out many times how Paul said that in Old Testament times the Gentiles had "no hope" and were "without God in the world". You know that few Gentiles were saved in Old Testament times.

I have pointed out multiple times that the New Testament times is even more evidence of the power of the omnipotent God, His Christ and the Holy Spirit to spread the gospel, which has nothing to do with Satan's "power" to deceive the nations - either before or after Jesus destroyed his power over death

- because the only power that Satan receives to deceive the nations is the power he receives from created human beings who give him that power through their belief of his words. God does not give him that power.

I have pointed the above out multiple times. But you cannot hear.

One more time: The fact that Christ destroyed Satan's power over death has nothing to do with Satan's ability to deceive the nations because giving him that power to deceive is not what God does (just because He is permitting it), but what human beings who believe Satan's words of deception do.

God has only permitted it - He until now permits both Satan's lying words of deception and the human freedom to choose whose words they will believe - and God has permitted it since He permitted Satan to approach Eve in the Garden of Eden, and will continue to permit it until He completely silences Satan as per Revelation 20:1-3, which you have corrupted the meaning of by adding a false doctrine to it.

God is omnipotent and Satan could not ever prevent the light of the Word of God from shining in the world.
He did prevent that because God allowed it.

Your blocked ears which are blocked by Amil false doctrine will not allow you to hear and to understand that darkness cannot overcome the light - not even temporarily so as to "prevent" the light of the Word of God from shining in the darkness.

The opposite is true - the world has always been in darkness after mankind chose to believe Satan's lying words of deception - but that darkness has always only been partial because of the light shining in the darkness + the fact that some created human beings choose to believe the light over the darkness. This has always prevented the world from being covered in complete darkness.

God has only permitted it - He until now permits both Satan's lying words of deception, AND He permits the human freedom to choose whose words they will believe (it's created human beings believing his words that gives Satan the power to deceive)

- and God has permitted it since He permitted Satan to approach Eve in the Garden of Eden, and will continue to permit it until He completely silences Satan as per Revelation 20:1-3, which you have corrupted the meaning of by adding a false doctrine to it.

You falsely, deceptively and wickedly claim that I say that Satan was more powerful than God, but that is not the case. I would not say such a horrible thing. Of course, Satan can only do what God allows him to do. That does without saying. So, any time I talk about what Satan was able to do or not able to do it's always in the context of what God allows.

Indeed it's what your doctrine implies - the very fact that you repeatedly say that the darkness prevented the light - because you keep stating in effect that the omnipotent God was not able to get His Word out to all the nations in Old Testament times because Satan had the power to deceive the nations, and that the only thing that could ever have been able to prevent Satan from being able to deceive the nations was the destruction of his power over death through Christ's death and resurrection.

What you say is in my HONEST opinion just blasphemous gibberish and your statements do indeed imply that God was giving Satan power to deceive the nations merely by permitting him to speak his lying words

- but that is not true. Only created human beings believing his lying words is what gives his words - and hence Satan himself - that power to deceive. The Word of God has always been in the world and mankind has always had a choice whose words to believe.

If it were true what you are implying by the things that you say - that in permitting Satan to offer lying words to mankind, GOD was giving Satan such power to deceive that God's Word could not go out to the nations in Old Testament times, then no one (including Noah, Abraham and all the others who have ever believed), but also not one Gentile would ever have turned to faith in the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob through the testimony of their descendants either.

Your slander is making you look like nothing more than an evil fool. Stop the slander already!

It's not slander and I'm not evil for being honest enough to tell you that in my HONEST opinion what you assert is blasphemous. The devil only has power to deceive you if you believe his words instead of God's Word. God does not give him that power just because God permits him to attempt to deceive you. You give Satan that power to deceive you by believing his words. It does not take away from the power of the omnipotent God to get His Word out to all the nations.

I've personalized it by saying "you" only because I'm trying to make you realize what you are saying - I'm not claiming that you choose to believe Satan's lying words of deception. I know that is not the case. At least I hope so. But inadvertently you choose to believe some of Satan's lying words by believing Satan was able to prevent the light from shining in the darkness before Christ died and rose again, which comes by believing Amil doctrine. What is not true is a lie. A lie is a lie, and is of the father of lies.

Even so, IMO the only reason why you cannot see this is because you have used your false statements in this regard in support of your false Amil theology which you need to defend at the cost of truth.

It's not slander and I'm not evil for pointing out to you that in my HONEST opinion what your words imply - that the omnipotent God was not able to get truth out to all the nations in Old Testament times "because Satan had the power to deceive them which was only taken away from him by Christ's destruction of Satan's power over death" - is blasphemous.

God is omnipotent and Satan could not ever prevent the light of the Word of God from shining in the world.

John 1
5 And the light shineth in darkness; and the darkness comprehended it not.

Amil comprehends the above not.
That verse is talking about the fact that the darkness does not overcome the light because the light is greater than the darkness.

Which is why what you imply about Satan being able to prevent the light from reaching the nations before Christ died and rose again is blasphemous. It was no different before Jesus died and rose again, destroying Satan's power over death.

Those who belong to the light (Jesus) are able to overcome the darkness.

That's because in Christ there is no darkness. Which proves yet again that those who believed God before Jesus died and rose again belonged to the light before His blood even purchased them from the everlasting death of the body. Through their faith in the Word of God they overcame the darkness even before Christ's blood purchased them from death and the sin that leads to death.

So why do you assert that the omnipotent God was unable to get His Word to the nations because Satan had "power" to deceive - but only before Christ destroyed his power over death?

John 8:12 When Jesus spoke again to the people, he said, “I am the light of the world. Whoever follows me will never walk in darkness, but will have the light of life.”

John 12:46 I have come into the world as a light, so that no one who believes in me should stay in darkness.

The one who comes to Him, believing in Him will not stay in darkness - not the one in the nations or the one among the Jews who does not come to Him and does not believe in Him, who chooses to give Satan power over them to deceive them by believing his lying words of deception, instead of the Word of Truth.

So why do you imply that before Jesus came, the Light's power over darkness was diminished because Satan apparently had so much power over the light that he could prevent the light from reaching the nations? (By the way, Abraham was a citizen of the nations so according to you God's Word could not have reached Abraham because Satan had 'power' to prevent the light from reaching the nations).
 
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PinSeeker

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LOL. I see that you are making about the same amount of headway with him as I have (none), so does that mean you are not making your point as effectively as could be or is it just impossible to get him to understand how we Amils understand Satan's binding and what it means for him to deceive the nations (ethnos)?
Neither, I think. <smile>

Grace and peace to you.
 

WPM

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In my mind, Amils do not take 'no more' in Revelation 20:3 to mean exactly what it says, if, in reality, any nations are still being deceived during the millennium. That's hardly the same thing 'no more' means in Revelation 18:21, for example.

All I'm asking, take Revelation 18:21, for instance. Show how Amils are applying 'no more' in Revelation 20:3 can also fit with how 'no more' is being applied in Revelation 18:21 or any of these other verses in Revelation where this same phrase is used.
Revelation 20:2 makes clear, "And he laid hold on the dragon, that old serpent, which is the Devil, and Satan, and bound him a thousand years. And cast him into the bottomless pit, and shut him up, and set a seal upon him, that he should deceive the nations [Gr. ethnos] no more, till the thousand years should be fulfilled: and after that he must be loosed a little season.”

Scripture often makes broad general sweeping statements. When Scripture tells us that the Gentiles would no longer be deceived it does not mean every single one of them, or even most of them, would be saved, just that the spiritual ignorance would be finally lifted from the darkened Gentiles. This relates to the Gospel light going out to the Gentiles (ethnos). Before the cross they were in darkness; now they are enlightened. They are without excuse. The answer to darkness every time is light.

With the Lord’s First Advent, the light began to shine brightly. Jesus confronted, overcame and dispelled the darkness at every turn. Satan was defeated on his own turf. Jesus bound Satan in spiritual chains. He limited his authority and influence over the Gentile nations and invaded his kingdom with the truth. Since the binding of Satan, the devil has not been able to prevent the spread of the Gospel to the nations, to keep the truth from shining bright on the once-blinded heathen or keep the Gentiles in spiritual darkness like they were in Old Testament times. Now the rest of the world has the opportunity to repent and receive deliverance and freedom. Satan's authority to deceive has been broken over countless millions since Calvary.

We see this with the special assignment that Jesus gave Paul in Acts 26:17-18: “Delivering thee from the people, and from the Gentiles [Gr. ethnos], unto whom now I send thee, To open their eyes, and to turn them from darkness to light, and from the power of Satan unto God, that they may receive forgiveness of sins, and inheritance among them which are sanctified by faith that is in me.”

Did this mean the deception that blinded the Gentiles would be finally be lifted from all the darkened Gentiles? Of course not. It is a general statement like Revelation 20.

Jesus, here, directly links the spiritual darkness enveloping the Gentiles to the power of Satan. He connects the Gentiles turning from darkness to light through the advance of the great commission to the deliverance of the Gentiles from the bondage or chains of Satan. This is how the gross darkness would be (and was) removed that hung over the Gentiles throughout the old covenant period. This is how they were delivered from the power of Satan to God to liberty in Christ.
 
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PinSeeker

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The point being, in the book of Revelation, either 'no more' means exactly what it says or it doesn't.
Yes, but it is not used in the same context in all the places it appears. In other words, 'no more' can mean for a season, and it can also mean forever. And it can also mean both; more on that in a moment.

In my mind, Amils do not take 'no more' in Revelation 20:3 to mean exactly what it says, if, in reality, any nations are still being deceived during the millennium.
David, you're making my point for me. During God's millennium, which we are in the midst of now (and maybe very close to the end of it, even from our perspective)... in "these last days," as the writer of Hebrews puts it in Hebrews 1:2, Satan is not deceiving the nations; indeed he cannot.

As for "Satan's little season," in which he will be loosed for a short time, he will... try... to deceive the nations, but in doing so suffer his final defeat. So, regarding what I said above. the 'no more' in Revelation 20:3 refers to both during God's millennium and during eternity, the age to come, so forever.

All I'm asking, take Revelation 18:21, for instance. Show how Amils are applying 'no more' in Revelation 20:3 can also fit with how 'no more' is being applied in Revelation 18:21 or any of these other verses in Revelation where this same phrase is used.
Revelation 18 is near the end of the fifth cycle of judgments [Revelation 17:1 - 19:10]; this is the judgment of Babylon, the worldly city, and is a portrayal of the end/close of the present age. After this come:

the sixth cycle (the white horse judgment [Revelation 19:11-21], a portrayal of the final conflict between Jesus and Satan)
the seventh cycle (the great white throne judgment [Revelation 20:1 - 21:8], in which the final conflict is portrayed in Revelation 20:7-10)

All these cycles are concurrent, actually, but each one focuses more and more, progressively, on the end. The sixth and seventh are the only ones where we see the final conflict actually portrayed, and the seventh is the only one where we see the final Judgment (Revelation 20:11-15) and the introduction of the New Heaven and New Earth (Revelation 21:1-8).

Grace and peace to you.
 
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WPM

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the only power that Satan receives to deceive the nations is the power he receives from created human beings who give him that power through their belief of his words. God does not give him that power.

I have pointed the above out multiple times. But you cannot hear.

One more time: The fact that Christ destroyed Satan's power over death has nothing to do with Satan's ability to deceive the nations because giving him that power to deceive is not what God does (just because He is permitting it), but what human beings who believe Satan's words of deception do.

God has only permitted it - He until now permits both Satan's lying words of deception and the human freedom to choose whose words they will believe - and God has permitted it since He permitted Satan to approach Eve in the Garden of Eden, and will continue to permit it until He completely silences Satan as per Revelation 20:1-3, which you have corrupted the meaning of by adding a false doctrine to it.




Your blocked ears which are blocked by Amil false doctrine will not allow you to hear and to understand that darkness cannot overcome the light - not even temporarily so as to "prevent" the light of the Word of God from shining in the darkness.

The opposite is true - the world has always been in darkness after mankind chose to believe Satan's lying words of deception - but that darkness has always only been partial because of the light shining in the darkness + the fact that some created human beings choose to believe the light over the darkness. This has always prevented the world from being covered in complete darkness.

God has only permitted it - He until now permits both Satan's lying words of deception, AND He permits the human freedom to choose whose words they will believe (it's created human beings believing his words that gives Satan the power to deceive)

- and God has permitted it since He permitted Satan to approach Eve in the Garden of Eden, and will continue to permit it until He completely silences Satan as per Revelation 20:1-3, which you have corrupted the meaning of by adding a false doctrine to it.



Indeed it's what your doctrine implies - the very fact that you repeatedly say that the darkness prevented the light - because you keep stating in effect that the omnipotent God was not able to get His Word out to all the nations in Old Testament times because Satan had the power to deceive the nations, and that the only thing that could ever have been able to prevent Satan from being able to deceive the nations was the destruction of his power over death through Christ's death and resurrection.

What you say is in my HONEST opinion just blasphemous gibberish and your statements do indeed imply that God was giving Satan power to deceive the nations merely by permitting him to speak his lying words

- but that is not true. Only created human beings believing his lying words is what gives his words - and hence Satan himself - that power to deceive. The Word of God has always been in the world and mankind has always had a choice whose words to believe.

If it were true what you are implying by the things that you say - that in permitting Satan to offer lying words to mankind, GOD was giving Satan such power to deceive that God's Word could not go out to the nations in Old Testament times, then no one (including Noah, Abraham and all the others who have ever believed), but also not one Gentile would ever have turned to faith in the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob through the testimony of their descendants either.



It's not slander and I'm not evil for being honest enough to tell you that in my HONEST opinion what you assert is blasphemous. The devil only has power to deceive you if you believe his words instead of God's Word. God does not give him that power just because God permits him to attempt to deceive you. You give Satan that power to deceive you by believing his words. It does not take away from the power of the omnipotent God to get His Word out to all the nations.

I've personalized it by saying "you" only because I'm trying to make you realize what you are saying - I'm not claiming that you choose to believe Satan's lying words of deception. I know that is not the case. At least I hope so. But inadvertently you choose to believe some of Satan's lying words by believing Satan was able to prevent the light from shining in the darkness before Christ died and rose again, which comes by believing Amil doctrine. What is not true is a lie. A lie is a lie, and is of the father of lies.

Even so, IMO the only reason why you cannot see this is because you have used your false statements in this regard in support of your false Amil theology which you need to defend at the cost of truth.

It's not slander and I'm not evil for pointing out to you that in my HONEST opinion what your words imply - that the omnipotent God was not able to get truth out to all the nations in Old Testament times "because Satan had the power to deceive them which was only taken away from him by Christ's destruction of Satan's power over death" - is blasphemous.




Which is why what you imply about Satan being able to prevent the light from reaching the nations before Christ died and rose again is blasphemous. It was no different before Jesus died and rose again, destroying Satan's power over death.
No. The power and ability to deceive is policed by God. Satan is not sovereign. Man is not sovereign. Satan and man can only do what God lets them do. God's uses Satan, evil and darkness for His own purposes and overriding will. Satan is a slave of the Lord. He cannot do what he wishes without permission Under the sovereign control of Christ, He reigns over His enemies (human and demonic) today. Everything is working out for His ultimate glory.

Romans 13:1 testifies:For there is no power [Gr. exousia –or authority) but of God."

Jesus declared in Matthew 28:18 after His resurrection,All power (exousia – ex-oo-see’-ah – or authority) is given unto me in heaven and in earth.
Yeah yeah OK
1Ki 22:20 And the LORD said, Who shall persuade Ahab, that he may go up and fall at Ramothgilead? And one said on this manner, and another said on that manner.
1Ki 22:21 And there came forth a spirit, and stood before the LORD, and said, I will persuade him.
1Ki 22:22 And the LORD said unto him, Wherewith? And he said, I will go forth, and I will be a lying spirit in the mouth of all his prophets. And he said, Thou shalt persuade him, and prevail also: go forth, and do so.
1Ki 22:23 Now therefore, behold, the LORD hath put a lying spirit in the mouth of all these thy prophets, and the LORD hath spoken evil concerning thee.

Psa 78:41 Yea, they turned back and tempted God, and limited the Holy One of Israel…
Psa 78:49 He cast upon them the fierceness of his anger, wrath, and indignation, and trouble, by sending evil angels among them.

Jdg 9:23 Then God sent an evil spirit between Abimelech and the men of Shechem; and the men of Shechem dealt treacherously with Abimelech:

1Sa 16:14 But the Spirit of the LORD departed from Saul, and an evil spirit from the LORD troubled him.
1Sa 16:15 And Saul's servants said unto him, Behold now, an evil spirit from God troubleth thee


Romans 9:15-21, “For he saith to Moses, I will have mercy on whom I will have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I will have compassion. So then it is not of him that willeth, nor of him that runneth, but of God that sheweth mercy. For the Scripture saith unto Pharaoh, Even for this same purpose have I raised thee up, that I might shew my power in thee, and that my name might be declared throughout all the earth. Therefore hath he mercy on whom he will have mercy, and whom he will he hardeneth. Thou wilt say then unto me, Why doth he yet find fault? For who hath resisted his will? Nay but, O man, who art thou that repliest against God? Shall the thing formed say to him that formed it, Why hast thou made me thus? Hath not the potter power over the clay, of the same lump to make one vessel unto honour, and another unto dishonour?”

Rev 17:16 And the ten horns which thou sawest upon the beast, these shall hate the whore, and shall make her desolate and naked, and shall eat her flesh, and burn her with fire.
Rev 17:17 For God hath put in their hearts to fulfil his will, and to agree, and give their kingdom unto the beast, until the words of God shall be fulfilled.
 
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Spiritual Israelite

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I have pointed out multiple times that the New Testament times is even more evidence of the power of the omnipotent God, His Christ and the Holy Spirit to spread the gospel, which has nothing to do with Satan's "power" to deceive the nations - either before or after Jesus destroyed his power over death

- because the only power that Satan receives to deceive the nations is the power he receives from created human beings who give him that power through their belief of his words. God does not give him that power.

I have pointed the above out multiple times. But you cannot hear.

One more time: The fact that Christ destroyed Satan's power over death has nothing to do with Satan's ability to deceive the nations because giving him that power to deceive is not what God does (just because He is permitting it), but what human beings who believe Satan's words of deception do.

God has only permitted it - He until now permits both Satan's lying words of deception and the human freedom to choose whose words they will believe - and God has permitted it since He permitted Satan to approach Eve in the Garden of Eden, and will continue to permit it until He completely silences Satan as per Revelation 20:1-3, which you have corrupted the meaning of by adding a false doctrine to it.
You use so many words to say nothing. No, I cannot hear false doctrine and I'm glad about that. You do not know what you are talking about. That is clear to me. You do not even consider what effect Christ taking the power of death away from Satan had. Scripture says he was able to wield that power to keep people as slaves to the fear of death. How you can't see the relation between that and his ability to deceive the nations is beyond me, but it's clearly YOU who cannot hear.

Your blocked ears which are blocked by Amil false doctrine will not allow you to hear and to understand that darkness cannot overcome the light - not even temporarily so as to "prevent" the light of the Word of God from shining in the darkness.
You are an evil liar. I have to assume you are lying about me and my beliefs at this point, since you keep saying it even after I correct you. I have never said that darkness can overcome the light. Not once! Stop lying about me!

Tell me, when did the light go into the world? Before or after Jesus came?

John 8:12 When Jesus spoke again to the people, he said, “I am the light of the world. Whoever follows me will never walk in darkness, but will have the light of life.”

John 12:46 I have come into the world as a light, so that no one who believes in me should stay in darkness.

Jesus is "the light of the world" and darkness CANNOT overcome Him. So, you LIE when you say my Amil doctrine teaches that darkness can overcome the light. No, it cannot and I never said that.

But, the light (Jesus) of the gospel did not shine in the world in Old Testament times. So, a vast majoirty of the world was in spiritual darkness in those times. How can you deny that? How can you deny the affect that the light of the gospel has had on the world and on Satan's ability to deceive the world since Christ came?

The opposite is true - the world has always been in darkness after mankind chose to believe Satan's lying words of deception - but that darkness has always only been partial because of the light shining in the darkness + the fact that some created human beings choose to believe the light over the darkness. This has always prevented the world from being covered in complete darkness.
Jesus is "the light of the world". The light of His gospel has not always been in the world. How can you not understand such simple things?

Indeed it's what your doctrine implies - the very fact that you repeatedly say that the darkness prevented the light - because you keep stating in effect that the omnipotent God was not able to get His Word out to all the nations in Old Testament times because Satan had the power to deceive the nations, and that the only thing that could ever have been able to prevent Satan from being able to deceive the nations was the destruction of his power over death through Christ's death and resurrection.

What you say is in my HONEST opinion just blasphemous gibberish and your statements do indeed imply that God was giving Satan power to deceive the nations merely by permitting him to speak his lying words
Your honest OPINION is GARBAGE and is a total LIE. There is nothing blasphemous at all about what I believe and that is a FACT.

Which is why what you imply about Satan being able to prevent the light from reaching the nations before Christ died and rose again is blasphemous. It was no different before Jesus died and rose again, destroying Satan's power over death.
No different? That's an insane comment. You are acting as if Jesus taking Satan's power over death away had no effect at all because you're saying "it was not different before Jesus died and rose again". That is clearly not true.

That's because in Christ there is no darkness. Which proves yet again that those who believed God before Jesus died and rose again belonged to the light before His blood even purchased them from the everlasting death of the body. Through their faith in the Word of God they overcame the darkness even before Christ's blood purchased them from death and the sin that leads to death.

So why do you assert that the omnipotent God was unable to get His Word to the nations because Satan had "power" to deceive - but only before Christ destroyed his power over death?
Did Paul say that the Gentiles had "no hope" and were "without God in the world" (Ephesians 2:11-12) before Christ came for nothing? What do you think he meant by that? That a few believed before He came means we can just ignore that a vast majority of the world was in spiritual darkness before He came and we can then act as if nothing really changed in the world in relation to Satan after He came?

The one who comes to Him, believing in Him will not stay in darkness - not the one in the nations or the one among the Jews who does not come to Him and does not believe in Him, who chooses to give Satan power over them to deceive them by believing his lying words of deception, instead of the Word of Truth.

So why do you imply that before Jesus came, the Light's power over darkness was diminished because Satan apparently had so much power over the light that he could prevent the light from reaching the nations?
Why? Because Jesus had not come yet. He is the light of the world. Without His light and the preaching of the gospel with the power of the Holy Spirit, the world was in almost complete spiritual darkness. Satan only has ever had the amount of power that God allows, but you can't just ignore the fact that he had much more power in OT times than in NT times. Otherwise, Jesus taking the power of death away from him would mean nothing.

(By the way, Abraham was a citizen of the nations so according to you God's Word could not have reached Abraham because Satan had 'power' to prevent the light from reaching the nations).
You are not even trying to understand my point. I am not talking in absolutes here, as if Satan had the ability to keep even people like Abraham in darkness. I'm talking mainly about the Gentile nations here. The situation in the Gentile nations was bad enough to where Paul was able to say that they, collectively, had "no hope" and were "without God in the world" (Ephesians 2:11-12). That was a general statement and doesn't mean there weren't a few exceptions. But, it went from that to a description of a great multitude that no one can number being saved (Revelation 7:9).