How big is Jesus Christ now?

[Truther]

There is a concept in our minds taught to us as children that Jesus is a man, typical as any sized man.
Col 2:9 teaches just the opposite.
It teaches that all of what God consists of is housed in the body of Jesus now.
This means Jesus is an omnipresent spirit to "house" all of his omnipresent God.
This also means, since God is light, that Jesus is light(by default).
So, the spirit man, Jesus Christ, is really bodily, omnipresent light.

Your questions and comments are much appreciated here...

 

[APAK]

Besides your solicitation for responses line, at the end, every line in your OP is false..IMO

Might want to take a look at it again

Blessings,

APAK

 

[Truther]

Besides your solicitation for responses line, at the end, every line in your OP is false..IMO

Might want to take a look at it again

Blessings,

APAK

Test it with critique.

This is a theology forum.

You would be the 1st person in years of teaching this that debunked my position.

Actually, it is perfect and irrefutable.

 

[Willie T]

Test it with critique.

This is a theology forum.

You would be the 1st person in years of teaching this that debunked my position.

Actually, it is perfect and irrefutable.

But, nonetheless, quite a dumb question.

 

[Enoch111]

There is a concept in our minds taught to us as children that Jesus is a man, typical as any sized man.

This is correct. The Man Christ Jesus in His glorious and glorified body is seated at the right hand of the Father in Heaven. He also appeared to the apostle John in this body.

AT THE SAME TIME since Jesus is God, He is omnipresent, and also present within all believers. As the Bible says, with God all things are possible. So both things are true.

 

[DNB]

There is a concept in our minds taught to us as children that Jesus is a man, typical as any sized man.
Col 2:9 teaches just the opposite.
It teaches that all of what God consists of is housed in the body of Jesus now.
This means Jesus is an omnipresent spirit to "house" all of his omnipresent God.
This also means, since God is light, that Jesus is light(by default).
So, the spirit man, Jesus Christ, is really bodily, omnipresent light.

Your questions and comments are much appreciated here...

Don't make frivolous, silly and ludicrous extrapolations from Scripture. You're trying to sound devout, but you sound reckless and childish, just like your avatar.
If we all played your silly game, then we could say that Mary, the wife of Joseph, was part divine. For it follows that only such an ontology, could beget one of an equal ontology. That is, Theotokos. Shall we play the Transubstantiation game too, for without a doubt, Scripture clearly states it.
Is it true that Melchizadek had no beginning nor end, no parenthood, if so, are we to surmise that he is divine also? Why not, there's as much evidence for that, as for your Jesus' omnipresent and light theory.

Colossians 2:9 is speaking of Christ's spirit and character, he attained perfection by being indwelt with the Holy Spirit. And this made him eligible to be the perfect sacrifice, in order to abrogate the Mosaic Law.
All Christians are exhorted to be holy, as God is holy, and to be perfect, as God our Father in heaven is perfect. We are to be one with God, in the same manner that Jesus is one with God.

John 17:11, 1 Peter 1:16, Leviticus 11:44, John 17:21-23.

 

[Truther]

Don't make frivolous, silly and ludicrous extrapolations from Scripture. You're trying to sound devout, but you sound reckless and childish, just like your avatar.
If we all played your silly game, then we could say that Mary, the wife of Joseph, was part divine. For it follows that only such an ontology, could beget one of an equal ontology. That is, Theotokos. Shall we play the Transubstantiation game too, for without a doubt, Scripture clearly states it.
Is it true that Melchizadek had no beginning nor end, no parenthood, if so, are we to surmise that he is divine also? Why not, there's as much evidence for that, as for your Jesus' omnipresent and light theory.

Colossians 2:9 is speaking of Christ's spirit and character, he attained perfection by being indwelt with the Holy Spirit. And this made him eligible to be the perfect sacrifice, in order to abrogate the Mosaic Law.
All Christians are exhorted to be holy, as God is holy, and to be perfect, as God our Father in heaven is perfect. We are to be one with God, in the same manner that Jesus is one with God.

John 17:11, 1 Peter 1:16, Leviticus 11:44, John 17:21-23.

Wrong.

All of God is in Jesus, not a portion of God....


Colossians 2:9 King James Version (KJV)
9 For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.

 

[Truther]

But, nonetheless, quite a dumb question.

Do you think that only a portion of God is in Jesus bodily, or all of God is in Jesus, bodily?

 

[Truther]

This is correct. The Man Christ Jesus in His glorious and glorified body is seated at the right hand of the Father in Heaven. He also appeared to the apostle John in this body.

AT THE SAME TIME since Jesus is God, He is omnipresent, and also present within all believers. As the Bible says, with God all things are possible. So both things are true.

How can a man be in one place and be omnipresent?
Good analogy.

This means that Jesus is an invisible omnipresent(everywhere at one time, bodily) spirit, but can appear in any form He wants to appear as.

1 Cor 15 says he was made a quickening spirit after resurrecting, causing Him to be a spirit that raises the dead and thus became the embodiment of the fullness of all of His God.

His true form is light, which Paul and his company saw on the road to Damascus.

 

[APAK]

@Truther ...on your OP..Col 2: verses 8 and 9, and even 10

The Greek transliterated word ‘theotes’ is only used once in the Bible. It is therefore prudent to understand the meaning of this word that Paul uses very carefully and precisely. It is definitely related to God. The English translations use the words, ‘deity,’ ‘Godhead,’ ‘Divinity,’ ‘God’s nature,’ ‘God’s being,’ and ‘divine nature.’

Godhead means the head God and therefore becomes a cryptic translation that is nonsense. God is divine, his nature is divine, his character and being is divine, God is the deity.

In Jesus was found ‘all’ or the fullness that his Father represented, his divine nature, operating within him to form Christ’s character and mind. Scripture agrees with this statement. See also Col 1:19 where his Father is pleased to have his fullness in Jesus; not that Jesus was the fullness of God.

The phrase ‘God in Christ’ and God that the Father’s mind is in Christ’s mind is true and pertains to Col 2:9. This divine mind or his word operated in Jesus. This again does not make Jesus divine, or that Jesus was the word. Only his Father was and is divine and owns his own ‘word’ he placed into Jesus, the man.

In Peter 1:4 we as believers, partake (part of his fullness) of the divine nature (Greek: ‘theios’) of the Father.

Verse 10 says we then have been given the ‘fullness’ of Christ. Not that we are Christ! We have the mind of Christ as Christ has the mind of God.

So if folks insist that the ‘fullness’ in Christ means he is also same divine Father or God, then we also are the same and divine via Christ. And of course we are neither Christ nor the Father or our own Creator.

Blessings,

APAK

 

[bbyrd009]

It teaches that all of what God consists of is housed in the body of Jesus now.

wadr ol' Josh is not mentioned in There, Colossians 2:8 Lexicon: See to it that no one takes you captive through philosophy and empty deception, according to the tradition of men, according to the elementary principles of the world, rather than according to Christ.

 

[bbyrd009]

@Truther ...on your OP..Col 2: verses 8 and 9, and even 10

The Greek transliterated word ‘theotes’ is only used once in the Bible. It is therefore prudent to understand the meaning of this word that Paul uses very carefully and precisely. It is definitely related to God. The English translations use the words, ‘deity,’ ‘Godhead,’ ‘Divinity,’ ‘God’s nature,’ ‘God’s being,’ and ‘divine nature.’

Godhead means the head God and therefore becomes a cryptic translation that is nonsense. God is divine, his nature is divine, his character and being is divine, God is the deity.

In Jesus was found ‘all’ or the fullness that his Father represented, his divine nature, operating within him to form Christ’s character and mind. Scripture agrees with this statement. See also Col 1:19 where his Father is pleased to have his fullness in Jesus; not that Jesus was the fullness of God.

The phrase ‘God in Christ’ and God that the Father’s mind is in Christ’s mind is true and pertains to Col 2:9. This divine mind or his word operated in Jesus. This again does not make Jesus divine, or that Jesus was the word. Only his Father was and is divine and owns his own ‘word’ he placed into Jesus, the man.

In Peter 1:4 we as believers, partake (part of his fullness) of the divine nature (Greek: ‘theios’) of the Father.

Verse 10 says we then have been given the ‘fullness’ of Christ. Not that we are Christ! We have the mind of Christ as Christ has the mind of God.

So if folks insist that the ‘fullness’ in Christ means he is also same divine Father or God, then we also are the same and divine via Christ. And of course we are neither Christ nor the Father or our own Creator.

Blessings,

APAK

"like" pretty much, although I said "you are elohim" for the bottom, so i dunno. Also i guess As a man thinks, so is he, so while i would not profess to be Yah, it seems we do have some role in creating?

 

[bbyrd009]

Actually, it is perfect and irrefutable.

ah, so iow almost surely crap, wadr

 

[bbyrd009]

And of course we are neither Christ nor

"of course" i dunno, i mean why would you be advised to pick up a cross, unless you were meant to become a christ? Priests, with a High Priest?

 

[APAK]

"of course" i dunno, i mean why would you be advised to pick up a cross, unless you were meant to become a christ? Priests, with a High Priest?

right, to become the image of Christ as Christ is the image of his Father...

 

[Truther]

@Truther ...on your OP..Col 2: verses 8 and 9, and even 10

The Greek transliterated word ‘theotes’ is only used once in the Bible. It is therefore prudent to understand the meaning of this word that Paul uses very carefully and precisely. It is definitely related to God. The English translations use the words, ‘deity,’ ‘Godhead,’ ‘Divinity,’ ‘God’s nature,’ ‘God’s being,’ and ‘divine nature.’

Godhead means the head God and therefore becomes a cryptic translation that is nonsense. God is divine, his nature is divine, his character and being is divine, God is the deity.

In Jesus was found ‘all’ or the fullness that his Father represented, his divine nature, operating within him to form Christ’s character and mind. Scripture agrees with this statement. See also Col 1:19 where his Father is pleased to have his fullness in Jesus; not that Jesus was the fullness of God.

The phrase ‘God in Christ’ and God that the Father’s mind is in Christ’s mind is true and pertains to Col 2:9. This divine mind or his word operated in Jesus. This again does not make Jesus divine, or that Jesus was the word. Only his Father was and is divine and owns his own ‘word’ he placed into Jesus, the man.

In Peter 1:4 we as believers, partake (part of his fullness) of the divine nature (Greek: ‘theios’) of the Father.

Verse 10 says we then have been given the ‘fullness’ of Christ. Not that we are Christ! We have the mind of Christ as Christ has the mind of God.

So if folks insist that the ‘fullness’ in Christ means he is also same divine Father or God, then we also are the same and divine via Christ. And of course we are neither Christ nor the Father or our own Creator.

Blessings,

APAK

That is aweful.

You mangled Col 2:9 to say something else.

That is why Christians don't agree with each other.

Now, you think we all qualify for having all the fullness of the Godhead in our bodies.

Making us complete in ourselves...

Ick!

 

[Truther]

Question....


Colossians 2:9 King James Version (KJV)



9 For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.


Yes, or no?

 

[APAK]

That is aweful.

You mangled Col 2:9 to say something else.

That is why Christians don't agree with each other.

Now, you think we all qualify for having all the fullness of the Godhead in our bodies.

Making us complete in ourselves...

Ick!

Where did you 'see' these last two lines you wrote in my response? You just made it up, didn't you? You must be kidding right...

Don't confuse the truth with your ignorance. Let me say it again very clearly then,....

You can not be divine anymore that the man Christ is divine....Only our LORD is divine.....this is what I said mate so don't twist it or mangle it to build up your ego and pride....I would do some praying for fibbing..just saying

APAK

 

[101G]

GINOLJC, to all
Addressing the OP only. I agree with your assessment. he is the The Intrinsic Spatial or the embodiment of God the Spirit manifested in flesh. so your assessment of Col 2:9 is correct.

but one thing, he's not physically setting "next" to anyone. Right hand as with Right Arm is an anthropomorphism describing that he is in "ALL POWER" as before. both, in G1411, dunamis and G1849, exousia. so the Col 2:9 scripture is correct.

PICJAG.

 

[APAK]

Question....


Colossians 2:9 King James Version (KJV)



9 For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.


Yes, or no?

You not have any confidence in what the verse means mate. Just stating a verse and asking if I believe it or not says it all mate....there's a lot you have to learn and there is no pride in my response at all....I'm trying to help you