How many times did the apostles receive the Holy Spirit

[XFire]

The 3 versus I considered

1. when they were sent out with no purse or script to heal and preach to gospel in matt 10.1

2. After the resurrection in John 20.22

3. At the day of Pentecost

 

[Wrangler]

It's a great question. Implied is certainly more than one and done.

 

[Shittim]

Romans 11:29 - All Israel Shall Be Saved

For God's gifts and His call are irrevocable.

biblehub.com

Looks like they received from Jesus after He received from John the Baptist.
blessings

 

[Pearl]

The 3 versus I considered

1. when they were sent out with no purse or script to heal and preach to gospel in matt 10.1

2. After the resurrection in John 20.22

3. At the day of Pentecost

Matthew 3:16 “ As soon as Jesus was baptized, he went up out of the water. At that moment heaven was opened, and he saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove and lighting on him.”

Luke 4:1-2 says, “Jesus, full of the Holy Spirit, returned from the Jordan and was led by the Spirit in the desert, where for forty days he was tempted by the devil.”

Luke 4:14 says, “Jesus returned to Galilee in the power of the Spirit, and news about him spread through the whole countryside.”

Even with Jesus it was a gradual process.

 

[XFire]

Romans 11:29 - All Israel Shall Be Saved

For God's gifts and His call are irrevocable.

biblehub.com

Looks like they received from Jesus after He received from John the Baptist.
blessings

So why did they need it 3 times

 

[XFire]

Not sure. The John quote was probably written ~50-60 yrs past the event. So as it is inspired doctrine we are left to judge John's word or Jesus's words.

But as the previous post states. We all need practice in walking in the HS continuously

 

[Hillsage]

Not sure. The John quote was probably written ~50-60 yrs past the event. So as it is inspired doctrine we are left to judge John's word or Jesus's words.

But as the previous post states. We all need practice in walking in the HS continuously

Have you ever considered the possibility that the John verse was prophetic? My studies have led me to believe it was pointing to the day of Pentecost.

 

[XFire]

Have you ever considered the possibility that the John verse was prophetic? My studies have led me to believe it was pointing to the day of Pentecost.

Yes I actually chased that aways. Could be and I won't tell you no. This same idea turns into John did not hang around the other apostles but did have access to the 3 synoptic parchments. But with that said. I would have thought he was present on the day of Pentecost. Acts 2.1 The words are also in red which implies Jesus's word but can be interpreted as another's word for verse 22

So that is what spurred the subject for the discussion

And if anyone cares. I do not write these things to get flamed or to instigate turmoil in others lives. I'm learning the Bible better and better writing here and I am hoping some people can get past their denominational slants like I am doing. (Catholic in this case)
Thanks for you reply

 

[Hillsage]

Yes I actually chased that aways. Could be and I won't tell you no. This same idea turns into John did not hang around the other apostles but did have access to the 3 synoptic parchments. But with that said. I would have thought he was present on the day of Pentecost. Acts 2.1 The words are also in red which implies Jesus's word but can be interpreted as another's word for verse 22

So that is what spurred the subject for the discussion

And if anyone cares. I do not write these things to get flamed or to instigate turmoil in others lives. I'm learning the Bible better and better writing here and I am hoping some people can get past their denominational slants like I am doing. (Catholic in this case)
Thanks for you reply

Did your "chase" include studying the Greek word "lambano" which gets translated as "receive" in John? If not, it's pretty worthwhile IMO. That's the Greek word that's always used when receiving the baptism 'gift of power' from the Holy Spirit, the 'giver of the gift'. And "lambano" carries with it, a different type of reception. As in, when you "receive/decomai" the word to make Jesus our savior. Most noted in Acts 8:14, 15 where decomai is in verse 14 and lambano is in 15.

My roots also used to go....all the way back to pope Peter ....but now they go farther back.....to Jesus.

 

[ScottA]

So why did they need it 3 times

They did not need 3 times (of recieving the Holy Spirit), but the world did. As He said, "Behold, I cast out demons and perform miracles today and tomorrow, and the third day I am perfected."

Those three times were enactments confirming what is written about all that was before the foundation of the world.

 

[Hillsage]

They did not need 3 times (of recieving the Holy Spirit), but the world did. As He said, "Behold, I cast out demons and perform miracles today and tomorrow, and the third day I am perfected."

Those three times were enactments confirming what is written about all that was before the foundation of the world.

Do you have anything to support your 'opinion' above?

I admittedly got stuck on studying this verse a week ago. I do know that the word "DAY" is not in the Greek following the word "third" in verse 32 and also in verse 33. For whatever that's worth.

LUK 13:32 And he said unto them, Go ye, and tell that fox, Behold, I cast out devils, and I do cures to day and to morrow, and the third DAY I shall be perfected. 33 Nevertheless I must walk to day, and to morrow, and the DAY following: for it cannot be that a prophet perish out of Jerusalem.

I did find in my book 'Number in Scripture' by EW Bullinger, that the number 3 "marks divine completeness or perfection". And I am of the persuasion that in this Luke 13 verse Jesus is referencing when the WORD which became flesh will, after three days in the tomb, once again sit in 'divine completeness' in the Godhead as a spiritual body. John 4 says that "God is spirit". And the WORD which was spirit gave up being spirit to become a "flesh" body.

So, that's my opinion supported as is, for whatever that's worth. But let me hear you 'back' your opinion.

 

[Peterlag]

The 3 versus I considered

1. when they were sent out with no purse or script to heal and preach to gospel in matt 10.1

2. After the resurrection in John 20.22

3. At the day of Pentecost

Put me down for number 3

And it's holy spirit which is the gift. Holy Spirit is God. They did not receive God. They received His gift. The words “HOLY SPIRIT” in the Bible are primarily used in two very different ways: One way is to refer to God Himself and the other is referring to God’s nature that He gives to people. God is holy and is spirit and therefore “the Holy Spirit” with a capital “H” and a capital “S” is one of the many “names” or designations for God. God gives His holy spirit nature to people as a gift and when HOLY SPIRIT is used that way it should be translated as the “holy spirit” with a lowercase “h” and a lowercase “s.” Greek does have upper and lower-case letters, but the early Greek manuscripts were all written with only upper-case letters. Therefore, the early manuscripts had no such thing as the “Holy Spirit” or the “holy spirit” because what was always written was the "HOLY SPIRIT." The capital or lower-case letters are always a translator’s interpretation whenever we read “Holy Spirit” or “holy spirit” or “Spirit” or “spirit” in the English Bible.

 

[ScottA]

Do you have anything to support your 'opinion' above?

I admittedly got stuck on studying this verse a week ago. I do know that the word "DAY" is not in the Greek following the word "third" in verse 32 and also in verse 33. For whatever that's worth.

LUK 13:32 And he said unto them, Go ye, and tell that fox, Behold, I cast out devils, and I do cures to day and to morrow, and the third DAY I shall be perfected. 33 Nevertheless I must walk to day, and to morrow, and the DAY following: for it cannot be that a prophet perish out of Jerusalem.

I did find in my book 'Number in Scripture' by EW Bullinger, that the number 3 "marks divine completeness or perfection". And I am of the persuasion that in this Luke 13 verse Jesus is referencing when the WORD which became flesh will, after three days in the tomb, once again sit in 'divine completeness' in the Godhead as a spiritual body. John 4 says that "God is spirit". And the WORD which was spirit gave up being spirit to become a "flesh" body.

So, that's my opinion supported as is, for whatever that's worth. But let me hear you 'back' your opinion.

I don't dabble in opinion.

The rule of tongues (how language is made clear) is one speaks and another interprets. I was simply explaining why this topic seems to come by three steps.

However, I don't consider that to actually be the question, but rather, Does the Holy Spirit come to a person all at once or gradually? The answer of which is, All at once, as those born of the flesh come in their time, but those born of the Spirit in the twinkling of an eye. Which is not to say that those who have recieved the Holy Spirit have received all knowledge from the beginning equally, but rather according to the purpose of God "each one in his own order."

 

[Lambano]

I hadn't considered the Sending of the Twelve to be a manifestation of the Holy Spirit, but it certainly deserves consideration.

I will probably stick with the John 20 "mini-Pentecost" being first just based on a literal interpretation of the text. Why the Holy Spirit chose to not manifest itself (himself? herself?) that day and instead chose to wait until Pentecost to manifest itself in that particular way to a larger audience, I can only speculate.

And I vote for 12 being the number of angels who can dance on a pinhead. Ow, ow, ow, ow!

 

[dev553344]

The 3 versus I considered

1. when they were sent out with no purse or script to heal and preach to gospel in matt 10.1

2. After the resurrection in John 20.22

3. At the day of Pentecost

The new testament is inspired and echoed from the Holy Spirit. So I would think you have to include that direction from God. I'm not totally sure what your asking. But OK.