Spiritual Israelite
Well-Known Member
LOL. It is foolish to rely on your human wisdom the way you do. You clearly have no understanding of what Paul wrote about here...IOW, per your view the thousand years and the 42 month reign of the beast = the same era of time, the past 2000 years in this case. As if that can make sense that a thousand years vs 42 months, thus a long era of time pertaining to the former, a short era of time pertaining to the latter, that these are referring to the same era of time, a long era of time, 2000 years and counting, in this case. Except logic says that 42 months can't represent the same amount of time that a thousand years can represent. That's just common sense.
1 Corinthians 2:9 For what man knoweth the things of a man, save the spirit of man which is in him? even so the things of God knoweth no man, but the Spirit of God. 12 Now we have received, not the spirit of the world, but the spirit which is of God; that we might know the things that are freely given to us of God. 13 Which things also we speak, not in the words which man's wisdom teacheth, but which the Holy Ghost teacheth; comparing spiritual things with spiritual. 14 But the natural man receiveth not the things of the Spirit of God: for they are foolishness unto him: neither can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned.
Stop thinking like the natural man who thinks the deeper things of God are foolishness. We're talking about the most highly symbolic book in the entire Bible here and you insist on interpreting it as literally as possible.
If the time period was meant to be taken literally then why is it referred to as 42 months, 1260 days and a time, times and half a time? Why is it referred to in 3 different ways like that if it's a literal time period? The fact that it's referred to the way it is makes for strong evidence that it's not meant to be taken literally. Otherwise, it would be referenced the same way each time.
Your lack of understanding of the identity of the two witnesses is one big reason why you are not able to understand how the 42 months/1260 days can be figurative of the New Testament era (up until Satan's little season). The two witnesses symbolically represent the church and its witness during the NT time period. The two witnesses are referred to as two candlesticks because candlesticks represent churches or congregations in the book of Revelation (Rev 1:20), so that represents the Jew and Gentile congregations witnessing together as one body of Christ (the church). They are referred to as two olive trees because that represents the branches of the wild olive tree, representing Gentile believers, being grafted in with the branches of the natural olive tree, representing Jewish believers, as Paul wrote about in Romans 11.
How do you explain the beast coming out of the bottomless pit at the end of the 42 months/1260 days in Revelation 11:7, when you have the beast coming out of the bottomless pit just before or at the beginning of the 42 months in Revelation 13?
Like the natural man, you consider the deeper things of God to be nonsense because you can't spiritually discern anything. You rely completely on your own flawed human wisdom for understanding and that's why you believe false doctrine. You are frequently not able to discern the difference between literal and figurative text because of your carnal way of thinking.It would be like someone in a math class claiming that the number 42 and the number 1000 can equal the same amount. Yet, no one, and I'm assuming including you, would ever propose such nonsense.
There's no way in your carnal mind it can mean that, but in reality it certainly can. We both believe that the 70 weeks of Daniel 9:24-27 is not 490 literal days, but 490 years instead. How are you able to allow for 70 weeks to equal 490 years, but for some reason you can't allow for any other time periods to be symbolic?42 months = 1260 days. 1000 years = 360,000 days, that assuming literal days are meant. No way in any universe can 1260 days mean the same thing as 360,000 days, even if in both cases the literal amount specified is not meant.
That's nonsense. Why would any Amil claim that worshiping the beast and having the mark of the beast, etc. only applies during Satan's little season when his little season follows the time, symbolically referred to as the thousand years, during which Christ's followers did not worship the beast or have its mark?Assuming Amil is the correct view, it would obviously have to mean that the 42 months represent satan's little season.
Why would it be? It makes no sense at all. You're not even thinking here.Except that doesn't appear to be your view.
Not in the carnal mind, it isn't, but those of us who don't rely on our own flawed minds and imaginations have no trouble with that.There is nothing logical about a thousand years and 42 months equaling the same amount of time, the same era of time.
LOL. As if this means anything to me? You may have noticed that I refute preterist arguments on a regular basis here? Why would I care what they think about this?Even Preterists, though I disagree with them as well, would never suggest that a thousand years and 42 months mean the same era of time and involve the same amount of time.
I could not care less about your flawed common sense. You are wasting your time with all this gibberish. You expect symbolic text to make sense in a literal, common sense way, which is just ridiculous.You have told me in the past that I only think I'm being logical about things when I really am not. As if you might have room to talk if you are proposing utter nonsense that a thousand years and 42 months are meaning the same thing, are involving the same era of time, the past 2000 years in this case, that assuming the thousand years precede the 2nd coming. Even if it does, common sense says that the 42 months would follow the thousand years in that case, not parallel them instead. If your view is supposed to be correct why isn't there at least some logic to it? There is no logic to any view that insists a thousand years and 42 months mean the same thing, are involving the same era and amount of time.
LOL. I meant what I said. You know when the New Testament time period is, right? So, yes, I believe it represents the time leading up to Satan's little season, which I believe is symbolically referenced as 3.5 days in Revelation 11:11.Keeping in mind you did say this--- I see the 42 months, 1260 days and time, times and half a time as being symbolic representations of the New Testament time period. If you are not meaning the past 2000 years by that, then what are you meaning by that?
Every single time, without fail, that I have said you have misrepresented my view, you misrepresented my view. I understand my view far better than you do.The last thing thing I need is you once again accusing me of misrepresenting your view.
Here's your problem. Your doctrine is based primarily on some of the most difficult to interpret passages in all of scripture while my doctrine (Amil) is based primarily on clear, straightforward passages that I use to help understand more difficult passages. If YOU want to be taken seriously, then address what I said in the first 2 posts of this thread: Unlike Amillennialism, Premillennialism is based on assumptions and speculation rather than on any clear, straightforward scripturesAlso keeping in mind, per your view the past 2000 years equal the thousand years. LOL, you can't have the thousand years and this 42 months in question both meaning the past 2000 years if you expect anyone to take you seriously. Meaning anyone with a brain taking you seriously.

