Ok. My apology if I wasn't clear. Let me try again...
A human act is either good or bad according as it leads to or detracts a person from his or her heavenly goal. If it is a good act, then it is a moral act. If it is a bad act, then it is an immoral act.
Alright, I follow your point and don't disagree except that I'm not certain that it's correct to say that heaven is our goal - per se. I, of course, agree with we have a heavenly calling as members of the Body of Christ but the heavenly destiny is secondary and comes as a result of the primary goal of righteousness.
So, what is "good?" Something within the universe is good if it meets the purpose for which it was created. For example, a pencil is good if it writes. If it doesn't, we either need to sharpen it (fix it) or throw it away (into the fire?). In the same light, humans are made for heaven. If we are headed that way, then we can assume we are good. If we are not, then we can assume we are bad.
This is surprisingly close to the correct answer! I don't mean for that to sound condescending but I'm just not accustomed to people getting within a mile of understanding the actual nature of right vs. wrong and so when someone gets this close it sort of surprises me!
Since God is the source of all goodness, then it stands that God is the source of all real morality.
What does it mean, in your view, for God to be the source of all goodness and in what way does it keep the meaning of the word "goodness" meaningful when applied to God Himself?
So, everything God does is good and moral.
Redundant. One cannot be good and not be moral. If an action is moral in nature then it is either good or bad. If an action is amoral it is neither good nor bad.
If we think otherwise, then we can be sure that we're missing something and are incorrect.
So, to put a finer point on the question, is the concept of righteousness defined by whatever it is that God does or is God good because He acts righteously?
What if God were to issue a decree that it was permissible to rape your neighbor's wife on any fifth Thursday of a month (like this coming May 31st for example)? Would that make rape on those days righteous or would such a decree make God evil?
(Some people in the past have freaked out when I've asked such clearly hypothetical questions as though I'm suggesting that God would ever do such thing. The whole point of picking such an obviously evil act is to make it unmistakable that its a
purely hypothetical question.)