KJV versus Modern Translations

  • Welcome to Christian Forums, a Christian Forum that recognizes that all Christians are a work in progress.

    You will need to register to be able to join in fellowship with Christians all over the world.

    We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!

CoreIssue

Well-Known Member
Oct 15, 2018
10,032
2,023
113
USA
christiantalkzone.net
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
Not as Scripture. They were placed by themselves but not added to the Scripture. They were viewed as historical but not inspired.

So you see, this big bru-haha over the KJV today not being the same as the 1611 is nothing but a lie. If you have a KJV Bible, you have the 1611.

Stranger

By that logic if you have the NKJV you have it was the 1611.
 

Phoneman777

Well-Known Member
Jan 14, 2015
7,290
2,568
113
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
My reason (and it's not just "my" reason) for supposing that (that "old" means "better") has already been stated, and so far you've given no argument against it.
Self evident by its very nature doesn't require evidence. And it is self evident that "older" doesn't mean "better", it simply means "older" - your supposition is based on subjectivity, because the evidence actually points to "older" actually meaning "corrupted".
This is from II Thessalonians, one of the
first NT documents to be written - so again, Paul cannot possibly be referring to inaccurate copies! He's talking about faked letters - documents that were rejected altogether by the early church and never incorporated into the New Testament.
Nice straw man. I have not claimed that Paul is referring to "copies". What Paul himself plainly makes evident by 2 Thessalonians 2:2 - that men were not above circulating false writings in his day, and by Colossians 2:17 - that the truth was being corrupted in his day, serves to well establish the possibility that corrupted MSS could have been produced, copied, and dug up as the "oldest" - albeit fraudulent - MSS we have today.
I'm sorry... your illustration was evidently so poor I should have abandoned it altogether! As you now admit, all the 'evidence' is hearsay, but do you see no possible distinction between 'close' hearsay and hearsay at a greater 'distance' in time?
Do you not recognize that "close" is for hand grenades and horseshoes, but what we have here is written testimony of Early Church Fathers referencing verses that are absent from the Alexandrian Text but present in the Textus Receptus, proving that they were deliberately left out of the Alexandrian? verses that appear in the Textus Receptus? You're no different than an evolutionist. When Dr. Mary Schweitzer's critics - who continued to discount her evolutionary timetable-shattering evidence derived from dino bones - were asked, "How much evidence would be necessary to convince you to change your mind?" their answer was, "There will never be enough evidence."

Bear in mind that Hippolytus could just as easily be quoting from Mark or Luke, and Irenaeus could be quoting Matthew 22:14.
Yes, but the purpose of Hippolytus' reference has to do with refuting Marcion, who Tertullian called out for his notorious use of the knife instead of the pen with regard to the Bible. Even Origen included the verse in his writings, a verse that the Critical Text claims to not be part of Scripture.
 

Phoneman777

Well-Known Member
Jan 14, 2015
7,290
2,568
113
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
But the TR and the KJV disagree with each other.
No translation is perfect. If you're dissatisfied with the KJV, fine, don't read it. But, please don't argue that the Critical Text is more reliable than the Textus Receptus, especially given that the Early Church Fathers in letters that are OLDER than the Alexandrian MSS are quoting texts found in the Textus Receptus, but are missing in the Critical Text.
 

CoreIssue

Well-Known Member
Oct 15, 2018
10,032
2,023
113
USA
christiantalkzone.net
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
Self evident by its very nature doesn't require evidence. And it is self evident that "older" doesn't mean "better", it simply means "older" - your supposition is based on subjectivity, because the evidence actually points to "older" actually meaning "corrupted".
Nice straw man. I have not claimed that Paul is referring to "copies". What Paul himself plainly makes evident by 2 Thessalonians 2:2 - that men were not above circulating false writings in his day, and by Colossians 2:17 - that the truth was being corrupted in his day, serves to well establish the possibility that corrupted MSS could have been produced, copied, and dug up as the "oldest" - albeit fraudulent - MSS we have today.
Do you not recognize that "close" is for hand grenades and horseshoes, but what we have here is written testimony of Early Church Fathers referencing verses that are absent from the Alexandrian Text but present in the Textus Receptus, proving that they were deliberately left out of the Alexandrian? verses that appear in the Textus Receptus? You're no different than an evolutionist. When Dr. Mary Schweitzer's critics - who continued to discount her evolutionary timetable-shattering evidence derived from dino bones - were asked, "How much evidence would be necessary to convince you to change your mind?" their answer was, "There will never be enough evidence."

Yes, but the purpose of Hippolytus' reference has to do with refuting Marcion, who Tertullian called out for his notorious use of the knife instead of the pen with regard to the Bible. Even Origen included the verse in his writings, a verse that the Critical Text claims to not be part of Scripture.

But of course you didn't watch a single video.
 

CoreIssue

Well-Known Member
Oct 15, 2018
10,032
2,023
113
USA
christiantalkzone.net
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
No translation is perfect. If you're dissatisfied with the KJV, fine, don't read it. But, please don't argue that the Critical Text is more reliable than the Textus Receptus, especially given that the Early Church Fathers in letters that are OLDER than the Alexandrian MSS are quoting texts found in the Textus Receptus, but are missing in the Critical Text.

Watch the videos.
 

farouk

Well-Known Member
Jan 21, 2009
30,790
19,232
113
North America
Correct that’s what the word means
Here is what Webster’s has to say .
Apocrypha
1: writings or statements of dubious authenticity
2capitalized
a: books included in the Septuagint and Vulgate but excluded from the Jewish and Protestant canons of the Old Testament
Blessings
Bill
Another term is Deuterocanonical, which means outside the canon...
 
  • Like
Reactions: SovereignGrace

CoreIssue

Well-Known Member
Oct 15, 2018
10,032
2,023
113
USA
christiantalkzone.net
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
Old editions of the King James used to include the Apocrypha.

But the KJVO crowd says 1611 is the only true Bible. None before and none after.

There are more than just spelling changes in.

And of course that infamous word Easter that does not belong.
 

Phoneman777

Well-Known Member
Jan 14, 2015
7,290
2,568
113
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
But of course you didn't watch a single video.
And, of course, refuse to explain how the writings of the ECFs that are older than the Alexandrian Text contain references to verses that are MISSING from the Alexandrian Text but present in the Traditional Text.