i also take note for some of you, it refers to the Jews first and the Gentiles last.
This is a mystery, but when Jesus said He was not sent but unto the lost sheep of the "house of Israel", He was not referring to the Jews there in the holy land at His 1st coming. The Gospel was indeed preached to those Jews first, but it should be obvious the majority of them were not ordained at that time to accept The Gospel of Jesus Christ, even by Apostle Paul showing in Romans 11 that God had put the "spirit of slumber" upon the majority of those Jews in Judea, which would not be removed until Christ returns. Lord Jesus was actually referring to places where The Gospel would... be accepted by the majority of peoples there. That was in Asia Minor with the first established Christian Churches outside the holy land, and then in Europe. It included members of all 12 tribes scattered abroad too, scattered among the Gentiles. Just why so many believing Jews today leave that Biblical and 'historical' fact out of this, I fail to grasp why they do that.
Furthermore, the title "house of Israel" after God had split the old nation of Israel in Solomon's day, per 1 Kings 11 forward), that title afterwards applied only to the ten northern tribe "kingdom of Israel". And those ten tribes were scattered out of the northern part of the holy land first, the Jews of the southern "kingdom of Judah" being the only ones of Israel left in the southern part of the holy land by the time of Jesus' 1st coming. So Jesus was actually referring to the the scattered ten tribes of Israel as the lost sheep, and they as a people would be the founders of the western Christian nations, fulfilling the prophecy to Ephraim in Genesis 48, that his seed would become "a multitude of nations."
James 1:1
1 James, a servant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ, to the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad, greeting.
KJV
This verse Jesus addressed to the Jews who were leaders of Israel in disbelieve and contending Him in Israel.
Not all of those leaders of Israel at Jesus' 1st coming were actual true bloodline Jews of the seed of Israel. The scribes of Israel at that time were the crept in unawares of Canaan, a group called the Kenites (1 Chronicles 2:55). And even though not all the Pharisees were against Jesus, a specific group among the Pharisees that wanted to kill Jesus were shown in John 8 that they were actually Satan's servants that Jesus represented as the "tares" of Matthew 13. (The good wheat represent God's people, but the "
tares" represent the enemy that crept in, as real tares looks just like real wheat while growing, but at harvest time the tare emits a black bud on its end, making it easy to identify as a weed, and is thus separated from the wheat.) In the parable Lord Jesus showed to let the "tares" alone, until harvest time when they will be separated. (See Jude 4; Deuteronomy 20:15-18; Judges 2 & 3; 1 Kings 9:20-22; Joshua 9; Ezra 2; Ezra 9)
Therefore the Gospel will depart from them in Israel, and apparently will go to the Gentiles and Jews outside of Israel, who've not heard and seen.
Let's not pump our Jewishness up beyond Scripture and history, please. It was mainly the lost ten tribes and Gentiles that made up the majority of believers of Christ's Church once The Gospel was preached outside the holy land. The Jews who believed when The Gospel went to the Gentiles made up only a small remnant of believers on Jesus Christ, even as it still is to this day, because the majority of today's Jews still reject Lord Jesus. And God has not lost the ten lost tribes He scattered, otherwise the joining of the two symbolic sticks of Ezekiel 37 for the future at Christ's return would not happen. To this day, the children of Israel represent
"two nations" like Ezekiel 37 says (Ezekiel 37:22).
Since He was addressing to the Jews in Israel, was He not referring to the remnant of Jews saved by grace in Israel shall be first? (Romans 11:6)
Yes, however, that still does not mean the majority of the seed of the children of Israel, i.e., the ten tribes, were just left out. Otherwise why would Apostle James address the 12 tribes scattered abroad which were not all Jews?
Jews = "house of Judah", southern "kingdom of Judah", "Jerusalem", or just "Judah". The Jewish historian Josephus said that title 'Jew' is what those returning to Jerusalem from their Babylon captivity called their selves. That title did not apply to the ten northern tribes of Israel because they were already gone, scattered out of the holy land before the Jews went captive to Babylon.
Non-Jews = northern ten tribes of Israel, known Biblically after the 1 Kings 11 split as the "house of Israel", or "kingdom of Israel", or just as "Israel", or as "Samaria" their capital city, or as "Ephraim" the head tribe over the other 9 tribes, or as "Joseph" the father of Ephraim and Manasseh.