When you hear or read long-winded rejection of what God's word states as truth, you must be hearing or reading a lie because God's word is truth. If a passage is misinterpreted, it does not take extensive explanation to demonstrate it. When a person rejects a clear statement of God's word, it is because he already has his belief, to which he sees God's word must conform. Example -
"So Jehovah gave unto Israel all the land which he sware to give unto their fathers; and they possessed it, and dwelt therein. And Jehovah gave them rest round about, according to all that he sware unto their fathers: and there stood not a man of all their enemies before them; Jehovah delivered all their enemies into their hand. There failed not aught of any good thing which Jehovah had spoken unto the house of Israel; all came to pass." (Josh 21:43-45 ASV) See also Josh 23:14-16
God's word states "they possessed it", the "it" being ALL the land promised. It does not say, they failed to possess it to the full degree, nor does it say they just began to possess it; nor does it say they could have fully possessed it, "if".
To emphasize it, God's word reads "There failed not" anything promised... "all came to pass". Can language be any more clear that what is agreed upon by the various translations. It is true that God sometimes can state something accomplished when it means it is sure of accomplishment because it is God who promised it. That is covered in the following -
"I will not drive them out from before thee in one year, lest the land become desolate, and the beasts of the field multiply against thee. By little and little I will drive them out from before thee, until thou be increased, and inherit the land." (Exod 23:29-30 ASV) * NOT part of the land
Why do these prophecy blow-hards deny God's word? It is because they already have their man-made system that states that Israel has not fully possess all the land promised to her, now some 3500 years after it is recorded in Joshua as a fact in that day. Further, Joshua is dated around 1400 BC and the following statement from 1 Kings is about 435 years later -
"Judah and Israel were many as the sand which is by the sea in multitude, eating and drinking and making merry. And Solomon ruled over all the kingdoms from the River unto the land of the Philistines, and unto the border of Egypt: they brought tribute, and served Solomon all the days of his life." (1Kgs 4:20-21 ASV)
Another passage dated approximately 450 years after Joshua is in 2 Chron. 9:22ff -
"So king Solomon exceeded all the kings of the earth in riches and wisdom. And all the kings of the earth sought the presence of Solomon, to hear his wisdom, which God had put in his heart. And they brought every man his tribute, vessels of silver, and vessels of gold, and raiment, armor, and spices, horses, and mules, a rate year by year. And Solomon had four thousand stalls for horses and chariots, and twelve thousand horsemen, that he bestowed in the chariot cities, and with the king at Jerusalem. And he ruled over all the kings from the River even unto the land of the Philistines, and to the border of Egypt. And the king made silver to be in Jerusalem as stones, and cedars made he to be as the sycomore-trees that are in the lowland, for abundance. And they brought horses for Solomon out of Egypt, and out of all lands." (2Chr 9:22-28 ASV)
It is clear that Israel HAD ALREADY possessed all the land promised to her by God in the days of Solomon, some 435-450 years after the statements of the fact in Joshua.
The claim that Tyre and Sidon were in the promise of land is unfounded, and any maps I've seen of the promised land to not include Tyre and Sidon. Prepositions can be tricky but "to" and "unto" does not mean "included" in reference to Tyre and Sidon! There is even question about the exact location and names/identity of Tyre as well as territory covered.
WHY DO SOME PROPHECY FANATICS REJECT GOD'S WORD? IT REFUTES THEIR MAN-MADE SCHEME THAT SAYS THE PROMISE OF THE LAND HAS NOT BEEN FULLY ACCOMPLISHED AND IS STILLL AWAITING ISRAEL'S FULL POSSESSION now some 3500 years after Joshua. I BELIEVE GOD, NOT THE NUTTY SYSTEMS OF MEN!
"So Jehovah gave unto Israel all the land which he sware to give unto their fathers; and they possessed it, and dwelt therein. And Jehovah gave them rest round about, according to all that he sware unto their fathers: and there stood not a man of all their enemies before them; Jehovah delivered all their enemies into their hand. There failed not aught of any good thing which Jehovah had spoken unto the house of Israel; all came to pass." (Josh 21:43-45 ASV) See also Josh 23:14-16
God's word states "they possessed it", the "it" being ALL the land promised. It does not say, they failed to possess it to the full degree, nor does it say they just began to possess it; nor does it say they could have fully possessed it, "if".
To emphasize it, God's word reads "There failed not" anything promised... "all came to pass". Can language be any more clear that what is agreed upon by the various translations. It is true that God sometimes can state something accomplished when it means it is sure of accomplishment because it is God who promised it. That is covered in the following -
"I will not drive them out from before thee in one year, lest the land become desolate, and the beasts of the field multiply against thee. By little and little I will drive them out from before thee, until thou be increased, and inherit the land." (Exod 23:29-30 ASV) * NOT part of the land
Why do these prophecy blow-hards deny God's word? It is because they already have their man-made system that states that Israel has not fully possess all the land promised to her, now some 3500 years after it is recorded in Joshua as a fact in that day. Further, Joshua is dated around 1400 BC and the following statement from 1 Kings is about 435 years later -
"Judah and Israel were many as the sand which is by the sea in multitude, eating and drinking and making merry. And Solomon ruled over all the kingdoms from the River unto the land of the Philistines, and unto the border of Egypt: they brought tribute, and served Solomon all the days of his life." (1Kgs 4:20-21 ASV)
Another passage dated approximately 450 years after Joshua is in 2 Chron. 9:22ff -
"So king Solomon exceeded all the kings of the earth in riches and wisdom. And all the kings of the earth sought the presence of Solomon, to hear his wisdom, which God had put in his heart. And they brought every man his tribute, vessels of silver, and vessels of gold, and raiment, armor, and spices, horses, and mules, a rate year by year. And Solomon had four thousand stalls for horses and chariots, and twelve thousand horsemen, that he bestowed in the chariot cities, and with the king at Jerusalem. And he ruled over all the kings from the River even unto the land of the Philistines, and to the border of Egypt. And the king made silver to be in Jerusalem as stones, and cedars made he to be as the sycomore-trees that are in the lowland, for abundance. And they brought horses for Solomon out of Egypt, and out of all lands." (2Chr 9:22-28 ASV)
It is clear that Israel HAD ALREADY possessed all the land promised to her by God in the days of Solomon, some 435-450 years after the statements of the fact in Joshua.
The claim that Tyre and Sidon were in the promise of land is unfounded, and any maps I've seen of the promised land to not include Tyre and Sidon. Prepositions can be tricky but "to" and "unto" does not mean "included" in reference to Tyre and Sidon! There is even question about the exact location and names/identity of Tyre as well as territory covered.
WHY DO SOME PROPHECY FANATICS REJECT GOD'S WORD? IT REFUTES THEIR MAN-MADE SCHEME THAT SAYS THE PROMISE OF THE LAND HAS NOT BEEN FULLY ACCOMPLISHED AND IS STILLL AWAITING ISRAEL'S FULL POSSESSION now some 3500 years after Joshua. I BELIEVE GOD, NOT THE NUTTY SYSTEMS OF MEN!