No, Mat. 13:34 is the correct scripture I referenced. Evidently you didn't read it, or you don't comprehend it.
[34] All these things spake Jesus unto the multitude in parables; and without a parable spake he not unto them:
[35] That it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the prophet, saying, I will open my mouth in parables; I will utter things which have been kept secret from the foundation of the world.
That was describing the way Matthew presented Jesus. Yet even in Matthew, Jesus explained to His disciples in private the clear meaning of those parables. You can stay with those lost Jews and see only the parables, and then, like them make up your own reasoning and call that truth. But you would be stuck in the "them" crowd.
Your verses declare it was the lost multitude that needed the parables.
Your verses do not prove the record of Lazarus going to Abraham's bosom is a parable. In Luke 16 Jesus was speaking to His disciples, and the Pharisees overheard the conversation. Jesus was not just telling a story to throw the Pharisees a spiritual truth. Jesus was deriding them in return how they were rich, yet have nothing. He explained to them just what it meant to go to sheol and have nothing to show for all their self righteousness on earth. He then later called Lazarus out of his grave. The Pharisees knew at that point they were in great trouble. Jesus not only explained what happens after physical death, but proved there was also a physical resurrection. Instead of confirming along with Jesus, their own doctrine, they rejected Jesus even more.
You are not even paying attention to all of Matthew 13:
"He answered and said unto them, Because it is given unto you to know the mysteries of the kingdom of heaven, but to them it is not given."
"And he spake many things unto them in parables, saying,"
I never stated nor implied Jesus did not speak only in parables to the multitude. Jesus spoke many things but not all things to the multitude in parables. Every time Jesus spoke was not a parable, but many times to the multitude it was in parables.
The parables were for the sole benefit of the multitude because they were not supposed to know all the mysteries of God.
Abraham's bosom was not a mystery from the foundation of the world. You are refuting your own point. If it was a Jewish fictional story, it would not be a parable, according to your own argument that a parable was supposed to be a mystery. I am not even saying Jesus invented the term on the spot when he replied to the Pharisees. Both Jesus and His disciples along with the Pharisees would have known what Jesus was saying. Even if that was the only time it was ever recorded in the NT.
I am not even arguing that Luke and Matthew were written to different audiences with totally different perspectives. No one should have to explain what was meant by Abraham's bosom either way. Certainly Luke was not associating the pagan afterlife with a Scriptural truth. But the Hebrews of the first century would have understood Abraham's bosom, even if the Gentiles did not, and it seems many today still don't understand. Why would Jesus use fiction to refute the Pharisees?