Preterism's Claim Of 70AD Fulfillment Is Silenced In One Verse, Luke 21:35

[Truther]

If it’s the law I think you’re talking about it wasn’t even given until mosses

God's Law began in the garden.

It was broken by Adam and Eve.

It was added to because of transgressions.

Even Abraham was under them....

Because that Abraham obeyed my voice, and kept my charge, my commandments, my statutes, and my laws.

.... long before Moses.

The 2 trees in the garden represent law(knowledge of good/evil) and Grace(tree of life).

 

[Iconoclast]

Future Unfulfilled

Matthew 24:15, Matthew 24:21, Matthew 24:29-31

All past

 

[Truther]

Yet it doesn’t say obsolete to saints it says obsolete.

The writer also says that it will soon disappear and it did with the destruction of the temple and the writer know that it would happen soon because Jesus said it would why do you think that the temple was destroyed?

So by the law is the knowledge of sin per Rom 3, correct?...


20 Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin.



The knowledge of sin was made obsolete 2000 years ago to sinners?

 

[Truther]

The Law Disappeared With The Death, Burial, And Resurrection Of Jesus Christ, Not In A Temple Destruction Decades Later As You Claim

Jesus Spoke symbolically of the temple in his resurrected body, not a literal destruction as you claim

The veil in the Holy place was torn from top to bottom at the Lords death, the temple was destroyed, gone

Sad part is, you have been clearly shown over and over, and you continue in your claims

Just like those in dispensationalism, repeating the pre-trib rapture, no different

Matthew 27:50-51KJV
50 Jesus, when he had cried again with a loud voice, yielded up the ghost.
51 And, behold, the veil of the temple was rent in twain from the top to the bottom; and the earth did quake, and the rocks rent;

John 2:19-22KJV
19 Jesus answered and said unto them, Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up.
20 Then said the Jews, Forty and six years was this temple in building, and wilt thou rear it up in three days?
21 But he spake of the temple of his body.
22 When therefore he was risen from the dead, his disciples remembered that he had said this unto them; and they believed the scripture, and the word which Jesus had said.

Nothing you posted said the Law was done away.

You need to be specific.


While you are explaining, please answer this....is the following passage past tense or present tense?...


8 But we know that the law is good, if a man use it lawfully;

9 Knowing this, that the law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and for sinners, for unholy and profane, for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers,

10 For whoremongers, for them that defile themselves with mankind, for menstealers, for liars, for perjured persons, and if there be any other thing that is contrary to sound doctrine;

 

[Truther]

The Law is obsolete to these people?...


8 But we know that the law is good, if a man use it lawfully;

9 Knowing this, that the law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and for sinners, for unholy and profane, for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers,

10 For whoremongers, for them that defile themselves with mankind, for menstealers, for liars, for perjured persons, and if there be any other thing that is contrary to sound doctrine;

 

[Truther]

What I am saying here is the foundation of both preterism AND dispensationalism teach the law is long gone for mankind.

They are both wrong.

The truth is the Law and Grace are both alive and well.

One must choose which way to go.(one or the other).

Nobody can have both or eliminate either one from existence.

The scripture teaches unsaved under the Law, saints are free from it and fall under the Grace category.

 

[Truther]

Was this done away too?....


39 The wife is bound by the law as long as her husband liveth; but if her husband be dead, she is at liberty to be married to whom she will; only in the Lord.

 

[Truther]

Was this done away too?....

Eph 6 Children, obey your parents in the Lord: for this is right.

2 Honour thy father and mother; which is the first commandment with promise;

3 That it may be well with thee, and thou mayest live long on the earth....


Rom 7 Know ye not, brethren, (for I speak to them that know the law,) how that the law hath dominion over a man as long as he liveth?

2 For the woman which hath an husband is bound by the law to her husband so long as he liveth; but if the husband be dead, she is loosed from the law of her husband.

3 So then if, while her husband liveth, she be married to another man, she shall be called an adulteress: but if her husband be dead, she is free from that law; so that she is no adulteress, though she be married to another man.

 

[Truther]

To my point....


4 Wherefore, my brethren, ye also are become dead to the law by the body of Christ; that ye should be married to another, even to him who is raised from the dead, that we should bring forth fruit unto God.


Not sinners.

 

[Marty fox]

The Law Disappeared With The Death, Burial, And Resurrection Of Jesus Christ, Not In A Temple Destruction Decades Later As You Claim

Jesus Spoke symbolically of the temple in his resurrected body, not a literal destruction as you claim

The veil in the Holy place was torn from top to bottom at the Lords death, the temple was destroyed, gone

Sad part is, you have been clearly shown over and over, and you continue in your claims

Just like those in dispensationalism, repeating the pre-trib rapture, no different

Matthew 27:50-51KJV
50 Jesus, when he had cried again with a loud voice, yielded up the ghost.
51 And, behold, the veil of the temple was rent in twain from the top to the bottom; and the earth did quake, and the rocks rent;

John 2:19-22KJV
19 Jesus answered and said unto them, Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up.
20 Then said the Jews, Forty and six years was this temple in building, and wilt thou rear it up in three days?
21 But he spake of the temple of his body.
22 When therefore he was risen from the dead, his disciples remembered that he had said this unto them; and they believed the scripture, and the word which Jesus had said.

Yes but the Jews kept doing it that’s why it was still happening when Hebrews was written and the writer said that it would soon disappear

 

[Abaxvahl]

The scripture is self explanatory

Nahum 1:5KJV
5 The mountains quake at him, and the hills melt, and the earth is burned at his presence, yea, the world, and all that dwell therein.

No text by definition is self-explanatory as words must be imbued with meaning and the order of words. If I say "it is raining cats and dogs" is that really by itself, with no context whatsoever (no cultural context for instance, no knowledge of idioms, etc) self-explanatory? If you saw that random word-order on a wall would you be able to rightly interpret it? Or how about "he hit it"? Grammatically it makes sense, but you don't know what "he" or "hit" or "it" is referring to, could be a dog running into a wall, a man having sex, a kid hitting a a baseball in practice, etc.

The same thing applies here. So where did you get the idea that this text means what you think it means, how did you come up with this interpretation? Did you compare it to what you know of ancient Hebrew culture, did you use religious anthropology to learn what prophets mean by this, what is the justification for your interpretation over what many preterists would give it as? I'd ask the same of them. I see the words of the text, I do not think putting them up gives any more explanatory power that putting "he hit it" on the wall. No text is self-explanatory by definition.

 

[Randy Kluth]

Fact is, your entire premise has a massive fail in its foundation. The law is still in effect. I can prove this to you throughout the epistles. The law is in effect for sinners and not for saints. This is something that both preterism and dispensationalism have completely overlooked. They’re both wrong.

No, the Law promised consequences for sin under the covenant. There are consequences for sin whether under the covenant of Law or not. Israel broke the covenant of Law, and it was therefore disposed of. The veil was rent. What about that don't you get?

 

[Truth7t7]

Nothing you posted said the Law was done away.

You need to be specific.


While you are explaining, please answer this....is the following passage past tense or present tense?...


8 But we know that the law is good, if a man use it lawfully;

9 Knowing this, that the law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and for sinners, for unholy and profane, for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers,

10 For whoremongers, for them that defile themselves with mankind, for menstealers, for liars, for perjured persons, and if there be any other thing that is contrary to sound doctrine;

Ephesians 2:15KJV
15 Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace;

Matthew 27:50-51KJV
50 Jesus, when he had cried again with a loud voice, yielded up the ghost.
51 And, behold, the veil of the temple was rent in twain from the top to the bottom; and the earth did quake, and the rocks rent;

 

[Truth7t7]

Was this done away too?....


39 The wife is bound by the law as long as her husband liveth; but if her husband be dead, she is at liberty to be married to whom she will; only in the Lord.

The 10 Commandments Are In Effect Today, And Have Never Been Removed

The Verse You Present Is Part Of The 10

 

[Truth7t7]

No text by definition is self-explanatory as words must be imbued with meaning and the order of words. If I say "it is raining cats and dogs" is that really by itself, with no context whatsoever (no cultural context for instance, no knowledge of idioms, etc) self-explanatory? If you saw that random word-order on a wall would you be able to rightly interpret it? Or how about "he hit it"? Grammatically it makes sense, but you don't know what "he" or "hit" or "it" is referring to, could be a dog running into a wall, a man having sex, a kid hitting a a baseball in practice, etc.

The same thing applies here. So where did you get the idea that this text means what you think it means, how did you come up with this interpretation? Did you compare it to what you know of ancient Hebrew culture, did you use religious anthropology to learn what prophets mean by this, what is the justification for your interpretation over what many preterists would give it as? I'd ask the same of them. I see the words of the text, I do not think putting them up gives any more explanatory power that putting "he hit it" on the wall. No text is self-explanatory by definition.

We Will Disagree, The Verse Is Self Explanatory, The Entire World Is "Burned", 2 Peter 3:10-13 Is Taking Place

Nahum 1:5KJV
5 The mountains quake at him, and the hills melt, and the earth is burned at his presence, yea, the world, and all that dwell therein.

2 Peter 3:10KJV
10 But the day of the Lord will come as a thief in the night; in the which the heavens shall pass away with a great noise, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat, the earth also and the works that are therein shall be burned up.

 

[Truth7t7]

Yes but the Jews kept doing it that’s why it was still happening when Hebrews was written and the writer said that it would soon disappear

Marty your suggestion defy's the very basic teachings in the Christian faith

Jews in synagogues today practice the law in ordinances, that's why the word Kosher is used

The New Testament in the blood came into effect upon the death, burial, resurrection of Jesus Christ, God vacated the Temple in Jerusalem as the veil was rent in the Holy place from top to bottom

The Preterist claim that Jews were still practicing whatever in the temple, and it still had ties to God is "Laughable"

Mark 15:37-38KJV
37 And Jesus cried with a loud voice, and gave up the ghost.
38 And the veil of the temple was rent in twain from the top to the bottom.

 

[Waiting on him]

Marty your suggestion defy's the very basic teachings in the Christian faith

Jews in synagogues today practice the law in ordinances, that's why the word Kosher is used

The New Testament in the blood came into effect upon the death, burial, resurrection of Jesus Christ, God vacated the Temple in Jerusalem as the veil was rent in the Holy place from top to bottom

The Preterist claim that Jews were still practicing whatever in the temple, and it still had ties to God is "Laughable"

Mark 15:37-38KJV
37 And Jesus cried with a loud voice, and gave up the ghost.
38 And the veil of the temple was rent in twain from the top to the bottom.

You need to really carefully consider what’s actually being stated in this scripture.
Hebrews 10:20 KJV
[20] By a new and living way, which he hath consecrated for us, through the veil, that is to say, his flesh;

 

[Truth7t7]

You need to really carefully consider what’s actually being stated in this scripture.
Hebrews 10:20 KJV
[20] By a new and living way, which he hath consecrated for us, through the veil, that is to say, his flesh;

From a poster that believes and teaches 98% of all biblical prophecy has been fulfilled?

I find it hard to take your postings seriously, in love

Jesus Is The Lord

 

[Waiting on him]

From a poster that believes and teaches 98% of all biblical prophecy has been fulfilled?

I find it hard to take your postings seriously, in love

Jesus Is The Lord

Let me maybe word it this way.
What if the veil in question, you know the one that was rent is in reference to His flesh broken for you? He did say destroy this temple and I’ll rear it up again in three days.

 

[Truth7t7]

Let me maybe word it this way.
What if the veil in question, you know the one that was rent is in reference to His flesh broken for you? He did say destroy this temple and I’ll rear it up again in three days.

The scripture is self explanatory, as you desire to change the very clear teaching "Why"?

Jesus Died and the veil in the Holy place was torn, and you want to remove this in your private interpretation, "Wrong"

This, coupled with your claims that 98% of biblical prophecy has been fulfilled, puts you in the realm of not being taken seriously, thats my opinion regarding your eschatology

If it dosent fit your belief, remove it through symbolic allegory

Mark 15:37-38KJV
37 And Jesus cried with a loud voice, and gave up the ghost.
38 And the veil of the temple was rent in twain from the top to the bottom.