It is irrelevant whether the text says "Iesous" or not. It is obvious it refers to the meeting in
John 3 which took place at night. It makes perfect sense to explain who Nicodemus was (the same Nicodemus who came to Yeshua at night the first time they met). There are no texts whatsoever that have "Joseph" in the text, are there? You are reading that into the text.
Joseph is in the text, in all four Gospels; Joseph is the Subject, the undertaker, the man of the hour, of the day and the date and, of the OCCASION of Jesus' BURIAL "This That Selfsame Whole Day BONE-DAY" of the Passover of Yahweh "on the first day seven days ulb ye shall eat ... with the flesh ... That Night Solemnly to be Observed" in the OT times by Israel, and "in these last days" by Our Passover Lamb of God Appointed and Predestined "according to the Scriptures ... to the ethical Law of the Jews TO BURY": "that which remained" of the flesh, the body of Jesus "according to the Scriptures", "on the fifteenth day of the First Month", "
This That Selfsame Whole Day BONE-DAY" of the Passover of Yahweh.
And so began Joseph to bury Jesus with first having "asked" for and obtained the body, having "received" it and "laid it down" and having started "treating" it,
AND THEN "came there Nicodemus who That First Night came to him - Joseph" and together they further "prepared" the body FOR INTERMENT "That Day great day of sabbath" of the passover FOR TO bury the passover sacrifice, THIS THAT BONE-DAY the DIVINE "LAMB OF GOD", "Our Passover".
"
AND THEN" in fact must also be in quotation marks, from 'ehlthen
oun ... ehlthen
de'.
"And then came there
Nicodemus, WHO 'That First Night' came to him" - Joseph, recorded John that event, that "evening", that fulfilment "according to the Scriptures", the Passover-of-Yahweh-Scriptures, the Scriptures of Law and the Psalms and the Prophets -- no night three and half years ago which he mentioned in the very same book, his own Gospel.
The Gospel of John is not prophesy or meant to be prophesy about Jesus; it is about OT Prophesy about Jesus fulfilled in the events which John recorded in his Gospel. But Gadar Perets makes of '~
the meeting in John 3~', prophesy, just because it '~
took place at night~'. GP makes of it a prophetic night eventually fulfilled "at that night" in chapter 19 of John's Gospel.
The night in John 3 had no bearing on "That First Night" John recorded in chapter 19 or on the fact it was "That First Night" of ulb at passover.
The night and meeting in John 3 is not numbered that it was Jesus and Nicodemus' "first meeting" or that they ever met again.
All these implications are fanciful nonsense only thought out when it is shown the day Jesus was Crucified was the day before He was Buried so that He had to Resurrect on the Sabbath as WRITTEN in all the Scripture, "God the Seventh Day from all his works rested" and not on Sunday.
It, '~
the meeting in John 3~', makes
no sense '~
to explain who Nicodemus was (the same Nicodemus who came to Yeshua at night the first time they met)~' because they NEVER MET again afterwards. Even your assumptions are faked.
But the irony! GP makes of '~the meeting in John 3 which took place at night~' a prophetic night eventually fulfilled "At That Night" in chapter 19 of John's Gospel BUT AT THE SAME TIME THEREWITH WANTS TO PROVE IT HAPPENED IN DAYLIGHT BEFORE SUNSET!