1 John 3:4 talks of sin being lawlessness. Those are sins unto death. In the OT there wasn't even a sacrifice that would cover them. So, no, I do not believe Romans 7 is a Christian. Galatians 5:19-21 seems to go along with the fight of Spirit vs flesh. What do you believe 'not inheriting the Kingdom of God means?
Something doesn't seem quite right to me. I get where you say breaking God's law is sin unto death. (The soul that sins must die. All men sin, therefore all men must die.) I have sinned, therefore I must die.
where does Jesus come in and what makes His Sacrifice any different than all the other sacrifices? I get that i must still physically die because I am in a condemned building. Even if I never sinned again, (which at this point is doubtful considering that anger in my heart is murder) that building is still condemned.
So where is any good news for me? The willful part you mention is a mashed up mess in me, because in my mind I can convince myself of all sorts of justifications ( he made me do it because he was so rude to me, she is being obscenely selfish and not caring about anyone else in the house, etc., etc.) And those are fig leaves
So I can convince myself I wasn't willfully sinning and it was some one ELSE'S fault that I murdered them in my heart. But if I deceive myself in that way, can I escape by saying it wasn't willful because I hid the sin in my heart from myself? If I lie long enough, I start believing the lie to be true. But it didn't work for ada m and eve, so why on earth would it work for me?
I'm rattling on. I just think something in what you say is not right. Where is any help for me?