If the Federal govt. had say so, then slavery was not a state issue. That it should have been only a state issue, yes.
Already gave my brief comment, and am not going to continue debating with you on this issue.
Slavery was a state issue. The Union did have concerns about slavery expanding. But you seem to not consider jurisdiction.
The Federation had the jurisdiction of admitting States...and over territories.
Once a colony, a territory had existing slaves, and they were admitted at States. The jurisdiction of the slaves became under the States governance.
Remember, the Federation was a new government. It was designed to establish a Union of States. They moved forward, with admitting States. OOOPS... slavery, a concern. Northern States via their own jurisdictional laws, were outlawing slavery....southern states were thriving on slavery.....and gee....the Federation was gaining territories, which hopefully would become future states....and the Federation didn't favor slavery....thus they intervened, BEFORE they would issue State-hood.
Missouri was on the brink requesting Statehood......of this OOOOPS...in the Federation expanding, and seeing that they did not want slavery promoted.
That was the problem. The northern states were pushing the Government to act against slavery.
The northern states were exercising their own governance to outlaw slavery.
I would agree, there was more influence from the North regarding DC, as already mentioned, TRAVEL, and distance for people from the North to buzz in DC and people in the South, so far away.
No provision should have been added prohibiting slavery for acceptance of statehood.
It was a State issue. Individual States decided according to their own governments to outlaw slavery, IN THEIR STATE.
The Federal Govt, didn't outlaw slavery.
The President wrote a proclamation. So?
Proclamation are not Laws. Laws are authorized to be promulgated BY Congress, not the President.
The Congress added an Constitutional Amendment, in application to the slaves, for granting them blanket citizenship...dictating they would be citizens of the Federation, and the State in which they reside.
In the Missouri Compromise a line was drawn at thirty six degrees and thirty minutes north latitude.
States above the line would forever prohibit slavery. States below slavery was allowed. Missouri was free to act on its own.
States above, slavery was already outslawed.
Territories above, and west, were territories of the Federation, their jurisdiction to not permit slavery.
States in the South, already having slavery and already having Statehood, remained as they were.
That is an act of the Congress of the United States in 1820. The Federal govt. declared which states could or could not have slaves. The Federal govt. therefore made it clear it was not a state issue.
1820 act was about Compromising, for Missouri to receive Statehood, with partial slave population.
You ignore jurisdiction.
Slavery was a State issue and moving into the 1860's...
And come along the chatter between the North Against slavery and the South for slavery...and the taxiation on import /exports, and the great distance between the South and DC and the forming of the Confedercy....all issues leading up to the War between the States...and bam, firing on the Union military...and the War was on.
The Federation did what the Federation does when "THEY" want jurisdiction, when they have NONE...
They entice the State with $$$
(Which is how the Federation now owns millions of acreage within States)
They Amend the Constitution, giving them more power.
(Which is how they did not address SLAVERY, but addressed the SLAVES themselves, by granting them citizenship. It is the Constitutional jurisdiction of the Federation to Grant citizenship, and Citizens by right are entitled to Liberty. So when the Federation granted Citizenship to the SLAVES, they were immediately entitled to invoke their Liberty.)
Which this was advantageous for the war efforts.
Yawn on this subject.
God Bless,
Taken