Waiting on him
Well-Known Member
And I know this because I get ugly at times. LolWell, what you said in post 211 was ugly, and I know for certain that Jesus doesn’t like ugly.
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And I know this because I get ugly at times. LolWell, what you said in post 211 was ugly, and I know for certain that Jesus doesn’t like ugly.
First I ever saw this word Lilliputian, had to goggle that one.I might be a King James Almost Onlyist
Visually challenged as some other poster mentioned in being able to read all of the Parson's lilliputin renderings of versions - this comes with AGE - and an even worse thing comes with age - I CAN'T REMEMBER all the stuff I have read - whether VEX did or did not use to appear in an old KJV
Koine Greek flees from my memory too, my once steel trap mind is rusting out...
But in addition to regular reading glasses - I have recently obtained an actual MAGNIFYING GLASS
I recently got an Interlinear of 1611 KJV and NIV and Greek text - and can scrutinize fully a bit at a time. It is the Alfred Marshall KJV-NIV interlinear.
I am not quite so ONLYIST as to say "if that KJV was good enough for Paul and Silas - it's good enough for me!"
Scripture says that the power of life and death is in the tongue.
Awesome!Waiting on him - the corresponding word is Brobdingnagian - from Gulliver's Travels I think.
If something is Brobdingnagian - it's BIG!
And I think it's totally possible that the only ones that may see my point would be those who are totally KJVO sorta brethren.
I'm not sure how you have arrived at this bizarre conclusion. The King James Bible has not changed since 1611 (and changes in spelling, typeface, or punctuation do not count). I could put parallel passages before you to confirm this.I'm pointing out that the KJV, along with others have been SUPERNATURALLY changed. Not with an editors pen, or by an apologist opinions, but in the supernatural realm.
I might be a King James Almost Onlyist
Visually challenged as some other poster mentioned in being able to read all of the Parson's lilliputin renderings of versions - this comes with AGE - and an even worse thing comes with age - I CAN'T REMEMBER all the stuff I have read - whether VEX did or did not use to appear in an old KJV
Koine Greek flees from my memory too, my once steel trap mind is rusting out...
But in addition to regular reading glasses - I have recently obtained an actual MAGNIFYING GLASS
I recently got an Interlinear of 1611 KJV and NIV and Greek text - and can scrutinize fully a bit at a time. It is the Alfred Marshall KJV-NIV interlinear.
I am not quite so ONLYIST as to say "if that KJV was good enough for Paul and Silas - it's good enough for me!"
I'm not sure how you have arrived at this bizarre conclusion. The King James Bible has not changed since 1611 (and changes in spelling, typeface, or punctuation do not count). I could put parallel passages before you to confirm this.
As to modern versions they are constantly being changed. They follow the marketing ploy of "new and improved". But whenever a product is presented as new and improved, it turns out to be the exact opposite. Now Woke Coke is going broke for their own stupidity. Just like all the sports teams.
I agree. But I was questioning the "supernatural" changes mentioned by the Parson.Corrupt changes are not the same as utilitarian changes.
I agree. But I was questioning the "supernatural" changes mentioned by the Parson.
Perish means to wither from lack of something. Destroy is a very definite act made by another entity.Yes, the KJV and the New KJV both read "are destroyed" for lack of knowledge. And you're saying that in the various quotes it is being said, instead, that they "perish" for lack of knowledge. To be honest, I don't have a history of the changes in these synonyms. But that's all they seem to be to me--synonyms!
You might personally see in the word changes a significant change in meaning. I don't, to be honest with you. "Perish" and "destroy" mean the same thing, as I hear it. Why many used to use "perish" when the current versions use "destroy" I don't know? Did these versions used to read "perish?" If so, that would explain why so many of your quotations use "perish."
The fact that current versions use "destroy" doesn't appear to be a significant change in meaning if earlier versions used "perish." The reason translations change is because society and its language change over time. To convey modern meanings, the language has to change too.
I agree. But I was questioning the "supernatural" changes mentioned by the Parson.
Perish means to wither from lack of something. Destroy is a very definite act made by another entity.
Yes, synonyms often have an additional meaning peculiar to them. It really doesn't matter. It's the *context* that determines how the word is used, whether it has to have a peculiar meaning all to itself or not.
For example, compare "rush" and "hurry," two imperatives that both signify to move quickly. "Rush" contains the additional sense of pressure resisting the quickness, whereas "hurry" only conveys the need to be quick." But in context, "rush" can mean the exact same thing as "hurry" and does not have to convey the idea of resistance.
Rush through enemy lines. Resistance in context.
Rush through the store. No resistance in context.
In our context, "perish" and "destroyed" mean exactly the same thing. The context is the same no matter what synonym is being used. No additional connotation need be conveyed by either word.
As I showed the brother from the example in the Olivet Discourse (post #230), the exact same Discourse is conveyed using slightly different words. And that's because there was no concern that using synonyms and paraphrases would alter the essential meaning.
"Frightened" and "alarmed" are both used, and we have no idea which word was originally used by Jesus. Since both words mean the same, it is acceptable to use either word. See Luke 21.9; Matt 24.6; and Mark 13.7.
"Alarmed" can convey the sense of being notified by a security device. But since that is not in context, "alarm" has the same connotation as "to frighten."
If you don't mind my asking, what version exactly are you posting from??? And how well versed are you to the King James. More specifically, the wording?
Yes, King James, but if the translation doesn’t satisfy I compare it with texts from other versions that are available, for example, CJB, NIV, NKJV, to get better understanding of the text, and I can discern if text is in tune or in accordance with the intention of the Spirit that inspired it.
In other words, I know what the Spirit means, and I check whether the text's vocabulary matches the Spirit's intention. In essence, the words may be different, but the meaning has to be that which the Spirit has inspired. The Word is GOD, letter and Spirit. GOD is Spirit.
Scriptures are Word of GOD. The Word is GOD, so I would say, by analogy, the Bible is GOD, the book of the LORD here, in the world of Devil.
Isn't that like mixing a bowl of sweet potatoes with Castor Oil?
No, in absolute, the Word is GOD, understand? You are saying this because you know not Him. He that is of the earth is earthly, and speaks of the earth: He that comes from above is above all, and what he has seen and heard, that he testifies; and no man receives his testimony. He that has received his testimony has set to his seal that GOD is true. For he whom GOD has sent speaks the words of GOD: for GOD gives not the Spirit by measure unto him.
Unfortunately you know only the letter of Scriptures, but know not GOD, the Word; the letter kills, and according your spirit you can be a killer of souls.
Eye has not seen, nor ear heard, neither have entered into the heart of man, the things which GOD has prepared for them that love Him. And GOD has revealed them by His Spirit: for the Spirit searches all things, yea, the deep things of GOD.
John 8:v. 47 - 47 He that is of GOD heareth GOD's words: ye therefore hear them not, because ye are not of GOD.
Your post above called my attention and I would like to know your interpretation, if you agree, on the exchange of messages between Parson and me, as follow:
Parson asked me:
I answered him, saying:
Parson replied my post above, saying:
For conclusion I would ask to you:
Based on the content of your post above that I quoted, do you think my biblical search criteria is really, as Parson said, "like mixing a bowl of sweet potatoes with Castor Oil?
Forgive me if I'm bothering you with my post, or if my question was a nuisance for you.
God bless