We know it isn't in what we consider to be scripture i.e. the Holy Bible so it's probably from the Apocrypha or some other similar source.Well I just wish him to be honest and have integrity and show the quotes he says he has.
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We know it isn't in what we consider to be scripture i.e. the Holy Bible so it's probably from the Apocrypha or some other similar source.Well I just wish him to be honest and have integrity and show the quotes he says he has.
well saidJesus referred to Himself as God in various ways more than once (Jn. 8:58;10:22-36), even the Pharisees understood that He did,
which is why they told him they were going to stone Him for "blasphemy" for "making Himself God." (Jn. 10:33)
"...for all have sinned" (Rom. 3:22)
"Christ ... Who committed no sin" (1 Pet. 2:21-22)
In verse 1 Pet. 2:22, it doesn't say, "only Christ committed no sin," but rather, "Christ ... Who committed no sin." Jesus, God Incarnate, fully divine and fully human, experienced temptations of evil, and through His will in cooperation with God the Father's help, He did not commit sins. Jesus, including, for example, children who have died without having committed sins, are exceptions to the "all have sinned" (Rom. 3:22). For these reasons, Rom. 3:22 isn't proof Mary sinned.
Now, consider that only the High Priest was allowed into the Holy of Holies to offer sacrifice to God for the sins of humanity. Would Mary not have to be so Holy and Perfect, to the point of being Second to God, as to conceive God Incarnate, the Messiah, and offer Him to God the Father as a sacrifice for the sins of humanity?
Peter says, “...like the Holy One who called you, be holy yourselves also in all your behavior; because it is written: “You shall be holy, for I am holy” (1 Pet. 1:15-16, cf. Lev. 19:2;20:7;20:26;21:8). Jesus, God Incarnate, was holy in all His behavior because He was without sin (1 Pet. 2:22), and thus He was completely Holy. If Mary was not without sin in all Her behavior, then She was not completely Holy and Perfect. Sin is disobedience, evil, and unholy (1 Jn. 3:4;8), and "no evil can dwell with God" (Ps. 5:4). Regarding Ps. 5:4 and Jn. 1:14, there's a difference between God Incarnate taking form inside a sinful human and living among sinful humans. Consider that Mary Magdalene, a sinful human, lived among God Incarnate, but she couldn't even touch Him after His resurrection yet because of her impurity from sins (Jn. 20:17). Therefore, how could God, the Most Holy and Perfect One, allegedly take form and dwell in a sinful body?
Do you believe or not believe that God, in advance, could have or could have not Thought of creating the soul that was to be the soul of the Mother of God Incarnate, and because He knew Her soul would've been subject to the law of the first parents, He preserved it from inheriting the stain of original sin, and thus it became an immaculate soul capable of possessing the fullness of His Grace, then He infused it into the embryo at the moment of Her conception? Do you believe or not believe that these factors, coupled with being conceived by and born of two Just human parents and having a natural good will, could have or could not have resulted in Mary being without sin, and thus a worthy dwelling place for God Incarnate, the Son of God, the Messiah, the Savior, the most Holy and Perfect One, to take form in and live a divinely Holy life with in Spirit and Body on earth and in Heaven?
Well as you have kept this part of the bible secret from us, you cannot know we would reject that part of Scripture.
Quit dodging and show us in the bible where God declared Mary sinless for Her whole life. that is all that is being asked of you. Why you keep snaking around simply answering this when you say it is in His inspired Word is beyond me.
James White mentions a source, but I don't know the name of the late document.We know it isn't in what we consider to be scripture i.e. the Holy Bible so it's probably from the Apocrypha or some other similar source.
well said
He was equal with God in the ability to instruct. Can you believe they wanted to stone him for that?I humbly say, God bless you for your Faith and good will, which led to you being able to recognize the Truth of this matter.
What is important is both in His Word and Revealed by God to Righteous men of faith,Well if it was so important for us to know and if mary was going to become co-mediatrix and all the other titles bestowed on her by Rome, I think God would have put it into His Word.
Jesus is without sin because he is God so for Mary to also be without sin she too would have to be God and she isn't and to compare Mary's human nature with Jesus' divine nature is completely wrong. Almost blasphemous.
We know it isn't in what we consider to be scripture i.e. the Holy Bible so it's probably from the Apocrypha or some other similar source.
He was equal with God in the ability to instruct. Can you believe they wanted to stone him for that?
I think it would be better if no one pursued such questions from someone who brings such false teachings whether in person or on a forum. To ask such questions cannot produce any reliability at all, but furthers the confusion and deceptions from the sources that are not Biblical.Quit dodging and show us in the bible
I think it would be better if no one pursued such questions from someone who brings such false teachings...
He wouldn't be making himself God, if he was God. You don't notice the contradiction evidently.He not only did things God can do, but He called Himself God because He is, which is why the Pharisees told them they were going to kill Him for making Himself God.
Even if it isn't in the bible, it should not contradict the bible or be added to what God says in the bible. Catholics seem to have many more books that they deem 'scripture' as well as the Holy Bible.James White mentions a source, but I don't know the name of the late document.
But not the books that @Soulx3 trumpets as "Scripture." See my Post # 400.Even if it isn't in the bible, it should not contradict the bible or be added to what God says in the bible. Catholics seem to have many more books that they deem 'scripture' as well as the Holy Bible.
It isn't me who thinks Mary is equal to Jesus. I admire Mary as a young woman given the enormous task of carrying the Son of God to be birthed as a human child. What a responsibility.It's illogical and blasphemous to think that God, the Most Holy and Pure One, Who abhors sin (not the sinner), willfully wanted to Incarnate Himself in and have for His Mother, a sinful and impure human.
Your teachers have got it all wrong, Jesus 'didn't inherit the stain of original sin' as you put it not because of Mary but because he was the Son of God. I wish you would pray and seek God's word on this matter; not in written words but words planted by the Holy Spirit in your heart and mind.Jesus, God Incarnate, fully divine and fully human, didn't inherit the stain of original sin because His Mother didn't have it.
Have you ever noticed that when someone coverts to Rome they are always talking about "the church" while when someone is born again they are always talking about Jesus. Just an observation.I've been a Christian/born again for many years and I have found that Catholics don't really want what God is offering and prefer to stick with their catholicism rather than deny it and choose life in Christ Jesus. You all seem to dismiss the whole lot of us a 'Protestants' and use it in nearly all discussions. Well I would strongly urge you, yourself to protest against the deceit you have been fed.
When little babies are born, sometimes they aren't given a name for a day or so. That little baby is still the same person, regardless of the name given him or her, right?
Simiarly, Christ founded one Church only.
A person is a manKIND of being with a Living Body and Soul.
A name is the “identifier” of that Body and Soul, (living or dead).
Yes, ManKIND names their offspring.
Yes, God names manKIND, before and after the births of manKIND.
* Yes, Christ Jesus founded (established) ONE Church.
* Yes, Christ Jesus’ Church ONLY being “called” by Christ Jesus, “MY CHURCH”.
* Yes, Christ Jesus’ Church ONLY being “Located” WITHIN a Living Person.
* Yes, Christ Jesus’ Preaching INCLUDED oral, written, Old Testament AND oral teaching of Christ Jesus’ Newly Revealed NEW Testament Gospel…
* Preached out of the mouth of Jesus;
In fields, in streets, in gardens, in boats, in towns, in homes, in Temple, in Synagogue's.
(NEVER in a building called a “Catholic Church”.)
* Jesus appointed willing Jewish men, to CARRY on Jesus’ works, of oral Preaching to Jews OF Jesus’ NEW Testament Gospel TO Jews.
(NEVER did such appointed, willing and acting men (on behalf of Jesus’ Gospel), call their preaching / teaching “CATHOLIC”, or call themselves “CATHOLICS”, or call their venue, buildings, where they taught and preached “CATHOLIC”.
Catholicism, is the invention of Gentile men, who historically heard the preaching / teaching OF the Gospel OF Jesus Christ:
* Established buildings they called A Church.
* Established the Name Catholic to be exclusive to their Organization and Members.
* Established a position for their Head Leader.
* Established (without Peter’s knowledge or approval), he be recognized and appointed “posthumously” as “high priest and holy father” OF their Gentile Organization.
* Established (without Mary’s knowledge or approval), she be recognized and appointed with a whole convoluted mess of non-scriptural nor Orally taught, (by Christ Jesus, nor by Christ Jesus’ appointed Apostles) “accolades”, “titles”, “teachings” … INSTIGATED, PROMOTED, and for CENTURIES LONG, taught BY;
(TAUGHT TO: masses of ILLITERATE men)
Gentile men calling themselves members of an Organization, THEY established and called “Catholic”.
This Church,from very early on, was named the Catholic Church.
Certainly agree, That Church was Organized by a group of Gentiles, established and named by a group of Gentiles and taught by and of Gentiles. [/B]
I would encourage you to read the Early Church Fathers, the first Christians, and you will see that their beliefs and practices were decidedly Catholic. If you want to call them pagans, that's between you and God.
I have read the Early Church Jewish mens words which do not reveal the same information as what are “your” chosen “early church fathers’.
IF I wanted to call anyone a pagan…that would come from my word, not yours.
Why deflect and speak to me of something I never said?
Certainly, it is between God and myself to TRUST His word over and above an organization that Gentile men established.
Glory to God,
Taken
Well as you have kept this part of the bible secret from us, you cannot know we would reject that part of Scripture.
Quit dodging and show us in the bible where God declared Mary sinless for Her whole life. that is all that is being asked of you. Why you keep snaking around simply answering this when you say it is in His inspired Word is beyond me.