Please refer to people by their actual names, and stop "dismissing" people.101G said:2 NOAuthority.
You just don't get it do you??
It was GOD, in the Person of Christ.
I asked you was it the son or the Father who spoke to Saul. be it know that the one who spoke to Saul did not say he was the Christ. so which PERSON of your Godhead spoke to Saul?, well. now if you don't know which person of your Godhead spoke, then you default your doctrine as a fraud. because if one can't tell, even after he identified himself, and you don't know, then your doctrine is a lie. because you don't know who the father nor the son is. plain and simple, you're a fraud.
now if you can't answer, be quite. because you're dismissed.
I would like to answer your OP.
John 1:1 shows that in the beginning was the Word. So we can see in the beginning Jesus Christ existed. Jesus is not a created being. We can see the beginning the Word was with God. Now we have two persons, Jesus and God. But we see that Jesus is God. Is this implying Jesus is the Father? No, it is stating the divinity of Christ. Jesus Christ is God, much like God the Father. Then John 1:2 confirms by stating that the same (that same God, the Word) was WITH God. These are two persons of the Godhead who have their beginnings clearly stated, as being divine, not as one person.
We also have the Holy Spirit. We can find the Holy Spirit in Genesis 1:2, which was moving upon the waters. We know that the Holy Spirit is divine. Here we have three divine beings outside the verse that presents all three in one specific part, stating that there are THREE. But we cannot go there yet, because of the unfortunately easy way to twist this to mean literally one God.
We can see there is one Spirit (which comes out to God divine Spirit in the Strong's Concordance) which refers to the third person in the God head in Ephesians 4:4. Then in the next verse, we see that there is one LORD. This refers to the LORD Jesus Christ. Then in verse 6 we see "One God" let's stop there at those first two words. Is this literally saying there is only one God? No. We continue on and see "One God and Father" stop again. Are the Scriptures calling only God the Father, God? No. It continues on stating there is one God and Father which is above all, and through all. This is not denying the divinity of the Lord, which this verse separated, nor denying the divinity of the Holy Ghost. This is just how the Father is mostly referred to, as God the Father. We already saw Jesus is divine.
Now understanding not to take that "one" out of context, let's move on to the next "one" and see how Scripture defines it, and not common theology.
1 John 5:7 - For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.
See, there are THREE. The Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost, all which have been previously proven by other verses. This verse simply emphasizes that fact. But looking at the end of this verse, many immediately take it to mean 3 = 1. No, one is not defined that way when it speaks of God. Think for example, a married couple. Those two become one as they are married, wherefore they are no more two, but one. Does this mean literally one? Of course not, that's common sense, by simple observance.
The same applies in many areas, where it proclaims we become one. When we say we are to become one with Christ, do we ever mean literally one? Of course not! The same logic applies to Jesus Christ, the Holy Ghost, and His Father.
John 10:30 - I and my Father are one.
The Pharisees knew what this meant. They knew Jesus was claiming to be divine in this very sentence. But did He say, I and my Father are one being? Consider His prayer to His Father, and you shall see:
John 17:11 - And now I am no more in the world, but these are in the world, and I come to thee. Holy Father, keep through thine own name those whom thou hast given me, that they may be one, as we are.
The last parts of this verse show Jesus is asking that those He is praying for may be one, even as He and His Father are one. Is He praying that we may be literally one? No, of course not. But that we may be one in agreement, one in accord. We operate as one, bringing lost souls back to the Father.
John 17:21 - That they all may be one; as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also may be one in us: that the world may believe that thou hast sent me.
Again, speaking as the oneness. He then explains, the He is in the Father, and the Father in in Him. Then he asks that we may be one in them, that the world may believe. He is praying for oneness of our operations, all cooperative with God. They are one, not literally one, but one in perfect divine agreement, as those who are Christ's are to be as well.
John 17:23 - I in them, and thou in me, that they may be made perfect in one; and that the world may know that thou hast sent me, and hast loved them, as thou hast loved me.
Now Jesus also says He shall be in us. Does this mean we are literally one? No, we are simply one in sharing the sorrows, the joys, the work, the accomplishments, etc. Jesus in us, and the Father in Him, Jesus in His Father, and us in Jesus and the Father. Does any of this depict literal oneness? Of course not.
So in response to your OP, no. There are 3 that bear record in Heaven. The Father, the Word, the Holy Ghost. And just as those three are one, so shall we be one with them.