The KJV Bible contains errors.

[JesusIsFaithful]

It's a good thing salvation isn't determined by which bible we read.

Yes. You can use any Bible to preach the gospel, but unfortunately all modern Bibles are supporting apostasy which is why Jesus was asking the question about finding faith in all the earth when He comes.

Luke 18:7 And shall not God avenge his own elect, which cry day and night unto him, though he bear long with them? 8 I tell you that he will avenge them speedily. Nevertheless when the Son of man cometh, shall he find faith on the earth?

So discipleship is determined by which Bible you use in following Him in serving Him by testifying of Him in seeking His glory and not something else in His name in seeking the glory of.

 

[JesusIsFaithful]

I can definitely see your point. And although I mostly read NKJV, I went to a christian ACE school for 6 years, and we memorized vast portions of Scripture in the KJV. So when reading the NKJV, when I come across a verse that doesnt sound right, I get my KJV and my Strongs, and look up the word in the Hebrew or Greek to see if the NKJV is accurate.

Still, it is best to lean on Jesus Christ as your Good Shepherd for the wisdom in understanding His words because Strong's Concordance does not always have it right. Even at this KJV site with Strong's Concordance, they do not have its actual meaning in its entirety.

HTML Bible Index - King James Version - Strongs Concordance - Frames Version

1 John 2nd chapter has Christ defined in the Strong's Concordance as "from criw - chrio 5548; anointed, i.e. the Messiah, an epithet of Jesus:--Christ."

Christ means deity. That is the meaning of His name when in use in the verses.

1 John 2:22 Who is a liar but he that denieth that Jesus is the Christ? He is antichrist, that denieth the Father and the Son. KJV

How can denying the Son is the Christ is the same as denying the Father? This is why in how Christ is used in the verse, defines the name as referring to deity as confirmed by another verse where Rock as used in scripture also refers to deity.

1 Corinthians 10:4And did all drink the same spiritual drink: for they drank of that spiritual Rock that followed them: and that Rock was Christ.

To further illustrate this point ... we look at the Greek word "pneuma" from which the Holy Spirit is derived from, BUT that is not all that the word means.

"from pnew - pneo 4154; a current of air, i.e. breath (blast) or a breeze; by analogy or figuratively, a spirit, i.e. (human) the rational soul, (by implication) vital principle, mental disposition, etc., or (superhuman) an angel, demon, or (divine) God, Christ's spirit, the Holy Spirit:--ghost, life, spirit(-ual, -ually), mind. Compare yuch - psuche 5590."

So no one can say that all of those definitions can be applied to the Holy Spirit. No way. How it is used in the verse, defines the Greek word.

And modern Bibles have erred in capitalizing spirit when it was about the Holy Spirit at all. Examples below in how the NKJV have made that mistake.

John 6:63 It is the Spirit who gives life; the flesh profits nothing. The words that I speak to you are spirit, and they are life. NKJV

It cannot be the Spirit that gives life when Jesus was talking about His words being spirit and they are life. Is the Spirit a "they"? No.

So Spirit should never have been capitalized in that verse as it was about a vital principle or a mental disposition as being of the definitions of pneuma.

2 Corinthians 3:6 who also made us sufficient as ministers of the new covenant, not of the letter but of the Spirit;a]">[a] for the letter kills, but the Spirit gives life. NKJV

Again, not a testimony about the Holy Spirit but a vital principle or a mental disposition.

John 6:63 It is the spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life. KJV

2 Corinthians 3:6 Who also hath made us able ministers of the new testament; not of the letter, but of the spirit: for the letter killeth, but the spirit giveth life. KJV

Anyway, when a Bible declines from the testimony of the Son by giving it to the Holy Spirit as being the Giver of life which explains the error of the Nicene creed.... it is not the truth in His words when it is the Son that gives life which is why all scripture points to Him to go to for life.

John 5:39 Search the scriptures; for in them ye think ye have eternal life: and they are they which testify of me. 40 And ye will not come to me, that ye might have life.

John 6:32 Then Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Moses gave you not that bread from heaven; but my Father giveth you the true bread from heaven.33 For the bread of God is he which cometh down from heaven, and giveth life unto the world. 34 Then said they unto him, Lord, evermore give us this bread. 35 And Jesus said unto them, I am the bread of life: he that cometh to me shall never hunger; and he that believeth on me shall never thirst.

All modern Bibles has this testimony, but because of errant translation, they give that glory solely to the Holy Spirit in the Nicene creed when the Holy Spirit would not take that glory away from the Son at all since it is His job to NOT speak of Himself, but to testify of the Son in seeking His glory and that includes in the scripture as well... the correct scripture keeping the truths in His words.

The Spirit is life.

Romans 8:2 For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus hath made me free from the law of sin and death.....10And if Christ be in you, the body is dead because of sin; but the Spirit is life because of righteousness.

Jesus gives us the Spirit by the promise from the Father; and therefore it is the Son that gives us life. There can be no deviation from this as it is obvious how those in church history's ecumenical past have erred giving that sole glory of that title to the Holy Spirit in the modified Nicene creed.

As led by the Spirit of God, we are to testify of the Son in seeking His glory and modern Bibles translators have forgotten Who scripture is to point to.

 

[Abiding Grace]

Im really sorry for that.... and I agree, that the KJV is an amazing version, however it is not the ONLY amazing version. I do, as I previously said, believe that God will preserve His Word. But yes, the onlies can bring about some....unnecessary feuding.

I was completely taken aback. But for her, anything she disapproved of wa

John 14:25-26 still is in line with John 16:13 where the Holy Spirit only speak and teach what the Lord Jesus Christ has said unto them. That still means that the Holy Spirit cannot use His own words in teaching us or in speaking to us.

That still holds the truth that Romans 8:26-27 is WRONG in all modern Bibles when implying or directly testifying that the Holy Spirit can utter His own intercessions directly Himself.

The KJV is "superior" in keeping the meat of His words for us to discern good and evil by it in these later days where faith is hard to find, because as it is, many believers thinks they can receive the Holy Spirit apart from their salvation and have that tongue which NEVER comes with interpretation as if the Holy Spirit is using it as a prayer language when John 16:13 & John 15:26-27 says He cannot do that.

No, it only shows that you are not well versed in proper exegesis. And, you don't seem to grasp that there is context you have ignored. The verse says that the Holy Spirit speaks to God the Father and vice versa.

Romans 8:25-27English Standard Version (ESV)

25 But if we hope for what we do not see, we wait for it with patience.

26 Likewise the Spirit helps us in our weakness. For we do not know what to pray for as we ought, but the Spirit himself intercedes for us with groanings too deep for words. 27 And he who searches hearts knows what is the mind of the Spirit, because the Spirit intercedes for the saints according to the will of God.


Romans 8:25-27King James Version (KJV)

25 But if we hope for that we see not, then do we with patience wait for it.

26 Likewise the Spirit also helpeth our infirmities: for we know not what we should pray for as we ought: but the Spirit itself maketh intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered.

27 And he that searcheth the hearts knoweth what is the mind of the Spirit, because he maketh intercession for the saints according to the will of God.

No difference at all that changes the role of the Holy Spirit.

You still have not provided any facts that support your view. You cannot prevail unless you do.

 

[Abiding Grace]

Yes. You can use any Bible to preach the gospel, but unfortunately all modern Bibles are supporting apostasy which is why Jesus was asking the question about finding faith in all the earth when He comes.

Luke 18:7 And shall not God avenge his own elect, which cry day and night unto him, though he bear long with them? 8 I tell you that he will avenge them speedily. Nevertheless when the Son of man cometh, shall he find faith on the earth?

So discipleship is determined by which Bible you use in following Him in serving Him by testifying of Him in seeking His glory and not something else in His name in seeking the glory of.

I want you to prove this accusation. "but unfortunately all modern bibles are supporting apostasy". These are your words. If you cannot support them with facts, then you should consider a public retraction.

Luke 18:7 is not talking about the KJV. The KJV hadn't been translated yet.

 

[JesusIsFaithful]

No, it only shows that you are not well versed in proper exegesis. And, you don't seem to grasp that there is context you have ignored. The verse says that the Holy Spirit speaks to God the Father and vice versa.

sigh

You are using an errant translation which goes to point, because John 16:13 & John 14:25-26 both says that your ESV rendering of Romans 8:26-27 is a wrong testimony of the Holy Spirit.

Romans 8:25-27English Standard Version (ESV)

25 But if we hope for what we do not see, we wait for it with patience.

26 Likewise the Spirit helps us in our weakness. For we do not know what to pray for as we ought, but the Spirit himself intercedes for us with groanings too deep for words.

at this link...

HTML Bible Index - King James Version - Strongs Concordance - Frames Version

scroll down to Romans 8:26-27 and you will see the Greek word for groaning which is stenagmoiV;

The last Greek word which is alalhtoiV is defined as "from a - a 1 (as a negative particle) and a derivative of lalew - laleo 2980; unspeakable:--unutterable, which cannot be uttered."

That means the groanings are not being uttered nor heard. That means no sound at all. That is why the ESV is a complete big fat lie when implying sounds are being made here by the Holy Spirit Himself in giving His intercessions.

Now look at verse 27 in the ESV. There is a grammatical error being made in that verse. So get your mid off of seeing the ESV reading in the KJV or else you are just going to plain miss it again.

27 And he who searches hearts knows what is the mind of the Spirit, because the Spirit intercedes for the saints according to the will of God.

How can the "he" that is separate from us in searching our hearts and separate from the Spirit in knowing the mind of... end with that same "he" being "the Spirit"? It cannot be "the Spirit". That is called a grammatical error. Plain and simple. If you are unwilling to see that as well as why the ESV is wrong as running against the truths in His words in John 16:13 & John 14:25-26..... then I leave you to God. I sure cannot open your eyes to see the truth in His words.


Romans 8:25-27King James Version (KJV)

25 But if we hope for that we see not, then do we with patience wait for it.

26 Likewise the Spirit also helpeth our infirmities: for we know not what we should pray for as we ought: but the Spirit itself maketh intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered.

27 And he that searcheth the hearts knoweth what is the mind of the Spirit, because he maketh intercession for the saints according to the will of God.

No difference at all that changes the role of the Holy Spirit.

Funny how one other poster saw the difference in His words. I still say you are reading the message of the ESV into the KJV and not reading it plainly for what it says.....the intercessions of the Spirit's of His groanings... CANNOT be UTTERED. That is why ANOTHER is needed to know the mind of the Spirit BECAUSE there is ONLY One Mediator between God and men to give the Spirit's unspeakable intercessions to the Father for the Spirit.

You still have not provided any facts that support your view. You cannot prevail unless you do.

Actually, I cannot prevail at all. Only Jesus can help you see the truth in His words. IF you are one of those tongue speakers, then I reckon I know why you are refusing to see the truth in His words. IF you are not, then God only knows why you are refusing to see the error in Romans 8:26-27 in all modern Bibles. I can only hope in time, He will enable you to see the truth and discern the evil of tongues without interpretation gained by those that believes it is the Holy Spirit being received apart from their salvation which is the apostasy of the latter days we are living in.

 

[JesusIsFaithful]

I want you to prove this accusation. "but unfortunately all modern bibles are supporting apostasy". These are your words. If you cannot support them with facts, then you should consider a public retraction.

Luke 18:7 is not talking about the KJV. The KJV hadn't been translated yet.

Luke 18:7-8 is talking about Jesus prophesying how bad it will be in the churches before He comes where faith is hard to find. Matthew 7:13-27 & Luke 13:24-30 all testifying to the falling away from the faith that Paul had spoken of in 1 Timothy 4:1-2 and in 2 Thessalonians 2nd chapter where he said that iniquity was already at work in the church back then whereas now it is happening in droves.

Ask Jesus Christ to show you the truth in the KJV.

 

[Job]

unfortunately all modern Bibles are supporting apostasy

How are they doing that?

 

[Abiding Grace]

Still, it is best to lean on Jesus Christ as your Good Shepherd for the wisdom in understanding His words because Strong's Concordance does not always have it right. Even at this KJV site with Strong's Concordance, they do not have its actual meaning in its entirety.

HTML Bible Index - King James Version - Strongs Concordance - Frames Version

1 John 2nd chapter has Christ defined in the Strong's Concordance as "from criw - chrio 5548; anointed, i.e. the Messiah, an epithet of Jesus:--Christ."

Christ means deity. That is the meaning of His name when in use in the verses.

1 John 2:22 Who is a liar but he that denieth that Jesus is the Christ? He is antichrist, that denieth the Father and the Son. KJV

How can denying the Son is the Christ is the same as denying the Father? This is why in how Christ is used in the verse, defines the name as referring to deity as confirmed by another verse where Rock as used in scripture also refers to deity.

1 Corinthians 10:4And did all drink the same spiritual drink: for they drank of that spiritual Rock that followed them: and that Rock was Christ.

To further illustrate this point ... we look at the Greek word "pneuma" from which the Holy Spirit is derived from, BUT that is not all that the word means.

"from pnew - pneo 4154; a current of air, i.e. breath (blast) or a breeze; by analogy or figuratively, a spirit, i.e. (human) the rational soul, (by implication) vital principle, mental disposition, etc., or (superhuman) an angel, demon, or (divine) God, Christ's spirit, the Holy Spirit:--ghost, life, spirit(-ual, -ually), mind. Compare yuch - psuche 5590."

So no one can say that all of those definitions can be applied to the Holy Spirit. No way. How it is used in the verse, defines the Greek word.

And modern Bibles have erred in capitalizing spirit when it was about the Holy Spirit at all. Examples below in how the NKJV have made that mistake.

John 6:63 It is the Spirit who gives life; the flesh profits nothing. The words that I speak to you are spirit, and they are life. NKJV

It cannot be the Spirit that gives life when Jesus was talking about His words being spirit and they are life. Is the Spirit a "they"? No.

So Spirit should never have been capitalized in that verse as it was about a vital principle or a mental disposition as being of the definitions of pneuma.

2 Corinthians 3:6 who also made us sufficient as ministers of the new covenant, not of the letter but of the Spirit;a]">[a] for the letter kills, but the Spirit gives life. NKJV

Again, not a testimony about the Holy Spirit but a vital principle or a mental disposition.

John 6:63 It is the spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life. KJV

2 Corinthians 3:6 Who also hath made us able ministers of the new testament; not of the letter, but of the spirit: for the letter killeth, but the spirit giveth life. KJV

Anyway, when a Bible declines from the testimony of the Son by giving it to the Holy Spirit as being the Giver of life which explains the error of the Nicene creed.... it is not the truth in His words when it is the Son that gives life which is why all scripture points to Him to go to for life.

John 5:39 Search the scriptures; for in them ye think ye have eternal life: and they are they which testify of me. 40 And ye will not come to me, that ye might have life.

John 6:32 Then Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Moses gave you not that bread from heaven; but my Father giveth you the true bread from heaven.33 For the bread of God is he which cometh down from heaven, and giveth life unto the world. 34 Then said they unto him, Lord, evermore give us this bread. 35 And Jesus said unto them, I am the bread of life: he that cometh to me shall never hunger; and he that believeth on me shall never thirst.

All modern Bibles has this testimony, but because of errant translation, they give that glory solely to the Holy Spirit in the Nicene creed when the Holy Spirit would not take that glory away from the Son at all since it is His job to NOT speak of Himself, but to testify of the Son in seeking His glory and that includes in the scripture as well... the correct scripture keeping the truths in His words.

The Spirit is life.

Romans 8:2 For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus hath made me free from the law of sin and death.....10And if Christ be in you, the body is dead because of sin; but the Spirit is life because of righteousness.

Jesus gives us the Spirit by the promise from the Father; and therefore it is the Son that gives us life. There can be no deviation from this as it is obvious how those in church history's ecumenical past have erred giving that sole glory of that title to the Holy Spirit in the modified Nicene creed.

As led by the Spirit of God, we are to testify of the Son in seeking His glory and modern Bibles translators have forgotten Who scripture is to point to.

So the Holy Spirit is a dirty-red-haired-step-child? The Holy Spirit is the third person of the Holy Trinity? Why should He be minimized? Are you a Trinitarian?

John 6:63King James Version (KJV)

63 It is the spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life.


John 6:63English Standard Version (ESV)

63 It is the Spirit who gives life; the flesh is no help at all. The words that I have spoken to you are spirit and life.


John 6:63Holman Christian Standard Bible (HCSB)

63 The Spirit is the One who gives life. The flesh doesn’t help at all. The words that I have spoken to you are spirit and are life.


John 6:63New American Standard Bible (NASB)

63 It is the Spirit who gives life; the flesh profits nothing; the words that I have spoken to you are spirit and are life.


John 6:63New English Translation (NET Bible)

63 The Spirit is the one who gives life; human nature is of no help! The words that I have spoken to you are spirit and are life.


John 6:63New International Version (NIV)

63 The Spirit gives life; the flesh counts for nothing. The words I have spoken to you—they are full of the Spirit and life.


John 6:63New King James Version (NKJV)

63 It is the Spirit who gives life; the flesh profits nothing. The words that I speak to you are spirit, and they are life.

Still waiting on your proof-texts.

 

[Abiding Grace]

Luke 18:7-8 is talking about Jesus prophesying how bad it will be in the churches before He comes where faith is hard to find. Matthew 7:13-27 & Luke 13:24-30 all testifying to the falling away from the faith that Paul had spoken of in 1 Timothy 4:1-2 and in 2 Thessalonians 2nd chapter where he said that iniquity was already at work in the church back then whereas now it is happening in droves.

Ask Jesus Christ to show you the truth in the KJV.

The KJV wasn't translated until 1611 and it was a revision of the Geneva and the Bishops, Coverdale, Taveners, the Great, Wycliff and Tyndale.

My dad used to tell me that rock n roll would be the great apostasy.

You are engaging in eisegesis. That means that you are imposing your beliefs onto the scripture instead of scripture informing your beliefs. None of this has anything to do with the KJV.

Paul did talk about iniquity in the churches, The Catholic church has been the source of so much sin and protestants as well. That only proves that we are all sinners. The Catholic church didn't translate the KJV.

Since you were not walking the earth when Paul did, you can only guess at what you are saying.

Every generation thinks their world was the worst.

Try again.

 

[JesusIsFaithful]

How are they doing that?

When Romans 8:26-27 in all modern Bibles implies or directly testify that the Holy Spirit can utter His intercessions by Himself when John 16:13 & John 14:25-26 in that SAME modern bile says He cannot speak for Himself at all.

By that errant translation in all modern Bibles, believers that are misled by this supernatural phenomenon that comes over them that is separate from their salvation, bringing tongues which happens to never come with interpretation, but is just babbling nonsense; they want this event and that tongue to be of God and so they assume that the tongue can be used as a prayer language by the Holy Spirit & Romans 8:26-27 in all modern Bibles supports that kind of tongue and that false assumption when other scripture of John 16:13 & John 14:25-26 says the Holy Spirit cannot use God's gift of tongues which is for speaking unto the people ( 1 Corinthians 14:20-22 ), to turn it around and use it as His own personal prayer language.

This apostasy where they try to understand this phenomenon by saying it is receiving the Holy Spirit separate from salvation, but Romans 8:9 disproves that notion as well as John 3rd chapter when being born again of the Spirit is when one is saved.

Another would say that it is another baptism with the Holy Ghost with evidence of tongues, but there is only one batptism that ties in with the one hope of our calling at our salvation Ephesians 4:4-6 & Ephesians 1:11-15

Many would seek to receive the Holy Spirit again to get this tongue, but they do so in error when Paul had explained that there is only one drink of the One Spirit by which we were all baptized by in 1 Corinthians 12:13 in relations to spiritual gifts and so that means there is no extra phenomenon in order to get these gifts. Believers are to seek them from the Lord Jesus Christ at that throne of grace; not by seeking to receive the Holy Spirit again which Paul warned against such preaching in 2 Corinthians 11:1-4.

That is the apostasy of seeking to receive the Holy Spirit separate from their salvation by a sign of tongues, and that is why that tongue is not of Him, but Romans 8:26-27 in all modern Bibles supports the false tongue as if the Holy Spirit can use God's gift of tongues as a form of prayer language.

So that is how they are doing that. May God help you to see that too.

 

[JesusIsFaithful]

So the Holy Spirit is a dirty-red-haired-step-child? The Holy Spirit is the third person of the Holy Trinity? Why should He be minimized? Are you a Trinitarian?

John 6:63King James Version (KJV)

63 It is the spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life.


John 6:63English Standard Version (ESV)

63 It is the Spirit who gives life; the flesh is no help at all. The words that I have spoken to you are spirit and life.


John 6:63Holman Christian Standard Bible (HCSB)

63 The Spirit is the One who gives life. The flesh doesn’t help at all. The words that I have spoken to you are spirit and are life.


John 6:63New American Standard Bible (NASB)

63 It is the Spirit who gives life; the flesh profits nothing; the words that I have spoken to you are spirit and are life.


John 6:63New English Translation (NET Bible)

63 The Spirit is the one who gives life; human nature is of no help! The words that I have spoken to you are spirit and are life.


John 6:63New International Version (NIV)

63 The Spirit gives life; the flesh counts for nothing. The words I have spoken to you—they are full of the Spirit and life.


John 6:63New King James Version (NKJV)

63 It is the Spirit who gives life; the flesh profits nothing. The words that I speak to you are spirit, and they are life.

Still waiting on your proof-texts.

You posted all of those version along with the KJV and you still do not see that John 6:63 cannot be about the Holy Spirit? Is the Holy Spirit a "they" now? Or is they referring to His words that gives life? So Jesus is speaking about a vital principle or a mental disposition & that is why the KJV has it right. There are a few other versions that has kept the spirit without capitalizing it, but Romans 8:26-27 is why I rely only on the KJV, because all modern Bibles has it wrong.

 

[Abiding Grace]

sigh

You are using an errant translation which goes to point, because John 16:13 & John 14:25-26 both says that your ESV rendering of Romans 8:26-27 is a wrong testimony of the Holy Spirit.

Prove it.

Romans 8:25-27English Standard Version (ESV)

25 But if we hope for what we do not see, we wait for it with patience.

26 Likewise the Spirit helps us in our weakness. For we do not know what to pray for as we ought, but the Spirit himself intercedes for us with groanings too deep for words.

at this link...

HTML Bible Index - King James Version - Strongs Concordance - Frames Version

scroll down to Romans 8:26-27 and you will see the Greek word for groaning which is stenagmoiV;

The last Greek word which is alalhtoiV is defined as "from a - a 1 (as a negative particle) and a derivative of lalew - laleo 2980; unspeakable:--unutterable, which cannot be uttered."

That means the groanings are not being uttered nor heard. That means no sound at all. That is why the ESV is a complete big fat lie when implying sounds are being made here by the Holy Spirit Himself in giving His intercessions.

Now look at verse 27 in the ESV. There is a grammatical error being made in that verse. So get your mid off of seeing the ESV reading in the KJV or else you are just going to plain miss it again.

27 And he who searches hearts knows what is the mind of the Spirit, because the Spirit intercedes for the saints according to the will of God.

How can the "he" that is separate from us in searching our hearts and separate from the Spirit in knowing the mind of... end with that same "he" being "the Spirit"? It cannot be "the Spirit". That is called a grammatical error. Plain and simple. If you are unwilling to see that as well as why the ESV is wrong as running against the truths in His words in John 16:13 & John 14:25-26..... then I leave you to God. I sure cannot open your eyes to see the truth in His words.

I'm quite familiar with STRONGS. But you aren't. There is no grammatical error present.

Romans 8:25-27King James Version (KJV)

25 But if we hope for that we see not, then do we with patience wait for it.

26 Likewise the Spirit also helpeth our infirmities: for we know not what we should pray for as we ought: but the Spirit itself maketh intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered.

27 And he that searcheth the hearts knoweth what is the mind of the Spirit, because he maketh intercession for the saints according to the will of God.



Funny how one other poster saw the difference in His words. I still say you are reading the message of the ESV into the KJV and not reading it plainly for what it says.....the intercessions of the Spirit's of His groanings... CANNOT be UTTERED. That is why ANOTHER is needed to know the mind of the Spirit BECAUSE there is ONLY One Mediator between God and men to give the Spirit's unspeakable intercessions to the Father for the Spirit.

I have never used the message. Anyone who claims to now about Bible translations should know that. It's a paraphrase, not a Bible You are KJVO. There is no denying that.

Did you know that there is a Strongs for the NASB?

“The KJV refers to the Holy Spirit with a neuter pronoun ‘it’. This is technically correct rendering (the term “spirit” in Greek is neuter), modern translations use “him”, recognizing the personality of the Holy Spirit. Surely the KJV translators were not attempting to deny the Spirit’s personality with their rendering, but one wonders about the double standard utilized by KJVO advocatesin attacking modern translations on similar grounds”

The King James Only Controversy Can You Trust the Modern Translations by James R. White.

The Holy Spirit is not an ‘it’.

Actually, I cannot prevail at all. Only Jesus can help you see the truth in His words. IF you are one of those tongue speakers, then I reckon I know why you are refusing to see the truth in His words. IF you are not, then God only knows why you are refusing to see the error in Romans 8:26-27 in all modern Bibles. I can only hope in time, He will enable you to see the truth and discern the evil of tongues without interpretation gained by those that believes it is the Holy Spirit being received apart from their salvation which is the apostasy of the latter days we are living in.

This is a common tactic of KJVO advocates. You sort Christians into little groups and judge them accordingly. What did the Apostle Paul say about this kind of division?

Romans 8:28-39.

28 And we know that all things work together for good for those who love God, who are called according to his purpose, 29 because those whom he foreknew he also predestined to be conformed to the image of his Son, that his Son would be the firstborn among many brothers and sisters. 30 And those he predestined, he also called; and those he called, he also justified; and those he justified, he also glorified.

31 What then shall we say about these things? If God is for us, who can be against us? 32 Indeed, he who did not spare his own Son, but gave him up for us all—how will he not also, along with him, freely give us all things? 33 Who will bring any charge against God’s elect? It is God who justifies. 34 Who is the one who will condemn? Christ is the one who died (and more than that, he was raised), who is at the right hand of God, and who also is interceding for us. 35 Who will separate us from the love of Christ? Will trouble, or distress, or persecution, or famine, or nakedness, or danger, or sword? 36 As it is written, “For your sake we encounter death all day long; we were considered as sheep to be slaughtered.” 37 No, in all these things we have complete victory through him who loved us! 38 For I am convinced that neither death, nor life, nor angels, nor heavenly rulers, nor things that are present, nor things to come, nor powers, 39 nor height, nor depth, nor anything else in creation will be able to separate us from the love of God in Christ Jesus our Lord.

You cannot prevail because you have no facts on your side.

 

[JesusIsFaithful]

You cannot prevail because you have no facts on your side.

I cannot prevail because He is not ministering to you to see the truth in His words. Nuff said. You either go to Him in prayer or you are afraid to.

 

[Abiding Grace]

You posted all of those version along with the KJV and you still do not see that John 6:63 cannot be about the Holy Spirit? Is the Holy Spirit a "they" now? Or is they referring to His words that gives life? So Jesus is speaking about a vital principle or a mental disposition & that is why the KJV has it right. There are a few other versions that has kept the spirit without capitalizing it, but Romans 8:26-27 is why I rely only on the KJV, because all modern Bibles has it wrong.

Is the Holy Spirit an 'it' as the KJV says?

Double standards.

 

[Abiding Grace]

I cannot prevail because He is not ministering to you to see the truth in His words. Nuff said. You either go to Him in prayer or you are afraid to.

I consider this to be a personal attack. You have no right to judge my relationship with God. We are supposed to stick to the facts instead of making it personal.

You cannot prevail because you have no facts or evidence.

 

[JesusIsFaithful]

I consider this to be a personal attack. You have no right to judge my relationship with God. We are supposed to stick to the facts instead of making it personal.

You cannot prevail because you have no facts or evidence.

All I have seen is that you have been ignoring my earlier request to go to Him in prayer to prove the word by Him and that is why I had posted again to do so and yes, I did provoke you to do so since you have been procrastinating.

Hebrews 10:24 And let us consider one another to provoke unto love and to good works:

 

[JesusIsFaithful]

Is the Holy Spirit an 'it' as the KJV says?

Double standards.

I consider this as twisting my words as well as the words of the KJV.

Itself implies the Holy Spirit serving as a means. The KJV has used the proper pronoun "he" and "him" in that same Book of Romans and yet because of your anti-KJV prejudices, you refuse to ask Jesus why the KJV translators kept it that way; and yes.. the 1599 Geneva Bible has used "itself" as well, but the footnotes are in error as there are other errors in the marginal notes of the Geneva Bible which was why the Puritans had asked King James for another Bible version to be done without the errant marginal notes that were running against scripture.

 

[Abiding Grace]

I consider this as twisting my words as well as the words of the KJV.

Itself implies the Holy Spirit serving as a means. The KJV has used the proper pronoun "he" and "him" in that same Book of Romans and yet because of your anti-KJV prejudices, you refuse to ask Jesus why the KJV translators kept it that way; and yes.. the 1599 Geneva Bible has used "itself" as well, but the footnotes are in error as there are other errors in the marginal notes of the Geneva Bible which was why the Puritans had asked King James for another Bible version to be done without the errant marginal notes that were running against scripture.

Here's a thought. Jesus told me you are wrong. See how that works?

You keep saying that things are in error, yet you provide not a quark of proof or even evidence. The KJV translators made errors, and said so. Just saying you are correct and other things are wrong, is not a cogent argument. There is even a verse in the KJV that has no manuscript support whatsoever. The translators chose not to correct it.

The KJV translators did use marginal notes and italics.

 

[JesusIsFaithful]

Here's a thought. Jesus told me you are wrong. See how that works?

With utter flippancy, I highly doubt it.

You keep saying that things are in error, yet you provide not a quark of proof or even evidence.

Who causes the increase? Who enables you to see the truth? It isn't me.

The KJV translators made errors, and said so.

Show me where the KJV translators said that they had made errors. You had not shared that info at all. Do not give a link expecting me to peruse the entire website for it if you are not going to point it out on that one web page that the link should take me directly to.

Just saying you are correct and other things are wrong, is not a cogent argument.

Scripture CANNOT go against scripture. Period. That is how & why the "lost books" of the Bible were left out.

SO...

If you want to know that the translators did a good job or not, then no scripture containing a certain truth will contradict nor oppose any other scripture in that N.T.

And regardless of you being unable to see Romans 8:26-27 testimony that the intercessions of the Spirit's are unspeakable and thus unutterable, thus His groanings cannot be uttered; hence no sound at all, you are still denying the truth in His words of John 16:13 that the Holy Spirit CANNOT speak for Himself when He can ONLY speak what He hears. John 14:25-26 confirms that the Holy Spirit can only say what Jesus has taught unto His disciples.

There is even a verse in the KJV that has no manuscript support whatsoever. The translators chose not to correct it.

I have seen the report that the KJV translators had late medieval manuscripts, but not the manuscripts from the earlier centuries, and so it was assumed that verses were added.

If you are referring to 1 John 5:7, then you are most definitely misinformed because extra biblical evidence from other christian writings have cited 1 John 5:7 as early as 250 A.D. as being part of the original scripture.

The KJV translators did use marginal notes and italics.

KJV translators got rid of the errant marginal notes that were in the 1599 Geneva Bible that were running against written scripture. This is not saying that there were no marginal notes in the KJV.

I believe you & I need to step away from discussing with each other because we are getting close to biting and devouring one another. Arguing is not discussing, and so I am letting you go to God's hand. Sorry for replying when I should have stopped a while ago. I shall ask Jesus to forgive me too.

 

[Abiding Grace]

With utter flippancy, I highly doubt it.

You can doubt as much as you wish. But I know that God tells me to reject such foolishness as KJV ONLYYISM.

Who causes the increase? Who enables you to see the truth? It isn't me.

God is the Alpha and the Omega, the beginning and the end. It is all in His omnipotent, omniscient, and omnipresent hands.

Show me where the KJV translators said that they had made errors. You had not shared that info at all. Do not give a link expecting me to peruse the entire website for it if you are not going to point it out on that one web page that the link should take me directly to.

I don't have to provide a link, and you cannot tell me HOW I can respond.

If you have the AV1611 as I do, you'll see that the KJV translators knew their translation was not perfect and they said so. They also said that Christians should study other Bibles for comparison. It's located in the very front of that translation. It's title is: THE TRANSLATORS TO THE READER

Here are the selected quotes, but you can find them at the link I have provided for the purpose of obeying the site rules about citing works.

A man may be counted a virtuous man, though he have made many slips in his life, (else, there were none virtuous, for in many things we offend all) [James 3:2] also a comely man and lovely, though he have some warts upon his hand, yea, not only freckles upon his face, but also scars. No cause therefore why the word translated should be denied to be the word, or forbidden to be current, notwithstanding that some imperfections and blemishes may be noted in the setting forth of it. The Translators to the Reader



But it is high time to leave them, and to show in brief what we proposed to ourselves, and what course we held in this our perusal and survey of the Bible. Truly (good Christian Reader) we never thought from the beginning, that we should need to make a new Translation, nor yet to make of a bad one a good one, (for then the imputation of Sixtus had been true in some sort, that our people had been fed with gall of Dragons instead of wine, with whey instead of milk but to make a good one better, or out of many good ones, one principal good one, not justly to be excepted against; that hath been our endeavor, that our mark.
http://www.bible-researcher.com/kjvpref.html



Therefore as S. Augustine saith, that variety of Translations is profitable for the finding out of the sense of the Scriptures: so diversity of signification and sense in the margin, where the text is no so clear, must needs do good, yea, is necessary, as we are persuaded.
http://www.bible-researcher.com/kjvpref.html




Robert Joyner - Were the KJV Translators KJV Only?

On page 7, the King James translators say, "Nay, we affirm and avow that the meanest translation of the Bible in English is the word of God." (See Appendix A, quote 4) When they say "meanest" they mean the poorest, the worst. So they believed that every translation was the word of God, no matter how many mistakes it had. This is the exact opposite of those who believe the King James is the only Bible for the English speaking people. Those who revere the King James translators so much believe just the opposite of what the translators themselves believed.

As I have said before I believe I have read everything or almost everything, both pro and con regarding KJVOnlyism

I do not post things that I don't know about. I'm not perfect by any means. I am a redeemed sinner just like you. But I have seen so much division, damage and discord shown, that I have made it my business to read up on both sides.

Scripture CANNOT go against scripture. Period. That is how & why the "lost books" of the Bible were left out.

SO...

If you want to know that the translators did a good job or not, then no scripture containing a certain truth will contradict nor oppose any other scripture in that N.T.

And regardless of you being unable to see Romans 8:26-27 testimony that the intercessions of the Spirit's are unspeakable and thus unutterable, thus His groanings cannot be uttered; hence no sound at all, you are still denying the truth in His words of John 16:13 that the Holy Spirit CANNOT speak for Himself when He can ONLY speak what He hears. John 14:25-26 confirms that the Holy Spirit can only say what Jesus has taught unto His disciples.

I'm not pitting scripture against scripture. I am saying that your hermeneutic is faulty and eisegesis is the result.

I have seen the report that the KJV translators had late medieval manuscripts, but not the manuscripts from the earlier centuries, and so it was assumed that verses were added. All of materials the KJV translators had were mostly 14-15th century. I know what materials they KJV translators had. Do you? Which TR? Ever heard that the two of the translators tried to make it a Crime to be a puritan?

If you are referring to 1 John 5:7, then you are most definitely misinformed because extra biblical evidence from other christian writings have cited 1 John 5:7 as early as 250 A.D. as being part of the original scripture.

You will have to show the proof of this. The best scholarship available says you are wrong. The Textual Problem in 1 John 5:7-8

I'll be waiting for that evidence.

KJV translators got rid of the errant marginal notes that were in the 1599 Geneva Bible that were running against written scripture. This is not saying that there were no marginal notes in the KJV.

I believe you & I need to step away from discussing with each other because we are getting close to biting and devouring one another. Arguing is not discussing, and so I am letting you go to God's hand. Sorry for replying when I should have stopped a while ago. I shall ask Jesus to forgive me too.

I have a facsimile GENEVA. You'll show me what marginal notes go against written scripture.

You do know that the KJV translators were Calvinists? Yes. In effect the only difference between the KJV translators and the Geneva was the issue of infant Baptism. The Puritans were Anabaptists.