The KJV Bible contains errors.

[StanJ]

What specific 'WORD' am I bearing false witness on. Don't just post 'junk'...state your specifics per scripture, that you are referring to. Also read my posting #13 (above) in regards to witnessing. Thank you.

Everything you stated here is not contained in the Greek nor in ANY English translations I have ever read so obviously you are wrong. Secondly the last Revelation to ever be given by God was to John of Patmos. Thirdly you have more than 3 people here who have told you you are wrong.
That's strike three and you're out!

 

[mjrhealth]

Secondly the last Revelation to ever be given by God was to John of Patmos

Not so, revelation is what Christ is buidling his "ecclesia" on (just not to confuse the matter), its still happening today to those who will listen.

Joh_8:43 Why do ye not understand my speech? even because ye cannot hear my word.
Joh_8:47 He that is of God heareth God's words: ye therefore hear them not, because ye are not of God.

You really should like up the number of times" hear" pop up.

 

[StanJ]

Not so, revelation is what Christ is buidling his "ecclesia" on (just not to confuse the matter), its still happening today to those who will listen.
Joh_8:43 Why do ye not understand my speech? even because ye cannot hear my word.
Joh_8:47 He that is of God heareth God's words: ye therefore hear them not, because ye are not of God.
You really should like up the number of times" hear" pop up.

Read Revelation 22:18-19 first off to see the warning there and then tell us what Revelation you have received from Jesus after this? It has already been established on this forum that you have no idea what the word ἐκκλησία (ekklēsia) means. What Jesus said in John 8 was;
John 8:43-47New English Translation (NET Bible)
43 Why don’t you understand what I am saying? It is because you cannot accept my teaching. 44 You people are from your father the devil, and you want to do what your father desires. He was a murderer from the beginning, and does not uphold the truth, because there is no truth in him. Whenever he lies, he speaks according to his own nature, because he is a liar and the father of lies. 45 But because I am telling you the truth, you do not believe me. 46 Who among you can prove me guilty of any sin? If I am telling you the truth, why don’t you believe me? 47 The one who belongs to God listens and responds to God’s words. You don’t listen and respond, because you don’t belong to God.”

Maybe if he used a modern English version of the Bible instead of the King James version you would actually understand what He said, but for some reason you think that Jesus speaks in Elizabethan English? No wonder you are so confused. If you can't understand his written word how in the world are you going to understand when he speaks to you in the spirit?

 

[kerwin]

Hello,

I do read the AV of the KJV and there are some errors. One is that Passover that occurs before Jesus' death and resurrection is translated to Passover and to Easter when it occurs afterwards. Another is that Gehenna, Hades, and Tartarus are all translated to Hell even though they are all three different concepts. The Phantasm is translated to spirit but in that case it is a synonym as another author did use the word spirit in describing what the disciples thought they saw as Jesus walked on the water. These can all be interpreted to mean what they actually were meant to mean so I consider them insignificant as long as the hearer understands words are open to interpretation.

 

[JesusIsFaithful]

I have the confirmation of "FOUR' witnesses,...The Father of The Lord God Almighty, The Lord God Almighty, The Holy Ghost, and, The Lord of Hosts/Son of Man. No man bears witness to they who experience Numbers 12:6. No man has been a witness to Isaiah seeing the figure on the throne. No man has been a witness to John's experience per the book of Revelation. No man was a witness to Stephen seeing Christ standing on the right hand of God (Acts 7:55-56). No man was a witness to Moses being in the presence of God, when he received the ten commandments. No man was a witness to The Holy Ghost 'coming upon' Mary. God does what He does, in a way that He chooses.

What does God have as Witnesses to establish a word in creation?

1 Samuel 1:23And Elkanah her husband said unto her, Do what seemeth thee good; tarry until thou have weaned him; only the Lord establish his word. So the woman abode, and gave her son suck until she weaned him.

2 Samuel 7:25And now, O Lord God, the word that thou hast spoken concerning thy servant, and concerning his house, establish it for ever, and do as thou hast said.

How can God establish a word in according to His words, unless He has two other Witnesses?

Deuteronomy 17:6At the mouth of two witnesses, or three witnesses, shall he that is worthy of death be put to death; but at the mouth of one witness he shall not be put to death.

Deuteronomy 19:15One witness shall not rise up against a man for any iniquity, or for any sin, in any sin that he sinneth: at the mouth of two witnesses, or at the mouth of three witnesses, shall the matter be established.

New Testament confirms His word for establishing a word and for judging any one remains true.

Matthew 18:16But if he will not hear thee, then take with thee one or two more, that in the mouth of two or three witnesses every word may be established.

2 Corinthians 13:1This is the third time I am coming to you. In the mouth of two or three witnesses shall every word be established.

What does God have as Witnesses to judge any one or to establish a word in creation??

More than just the Father, but the Holy Ghost as well, because 1 John 5:7 belongs in scripture. Here are exra-biblical references of 1 John 5:7 originally belonging in scripture.

"250 AD Cyprian of Carthage, wrote, "And again, of the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost it is written: "And the three are One" in his On The Lapsed, On the Novatians, (see note for Old Latin)

350 AD Priscillian referred to it [Corpus Scriptorum Ecclesiasticorum Latinorum, Academia Litterarum Vindobonensis, vol. xviii, p. 6.]

350 AD Idacius Clarus referred to it [Patrilogiae Cursus Completus, Series Latina by Migne, vol. 62, col. 359.]

350 AD Athanasius referred to it in his De Incarnatione

398 AD Aurelius Augustine used it to defend Trinitarianism in De Trinitate against the heresy of Sabellianism

415 AD Council of Carthage appealed to 1 John 5:7 when debating the Arian belief (Arians didn't believe in the deity of Jesus Christ)

450-530 AD Several orthodox African writers quoted the verse when defending the doctrine of the Trinity against the gainsaying of the Vandals. These writers are:
A) Vigilius Tapensis in "Three Witnesses in Heaven"
B) Victor Vitensis in his Historia persecutionis [Corpus Scriptorum Ecclesiasticorum Latinorum, Academia Litterarum Vindobonensis, vol. vii, p. 60.]
C) Fulgentius in "The Three Heavenly Witnesses" [Patrilogiae Cursus Completus, Series Latina by Migne, vol. 65, col. 500.]

For other scripture that proves the Holy Spirit is also a Witness and not just the Father being the other Witness.

John 15:26 But when the Comforter is come, whom I will send unto you from the Father, even the Spirit of truth, which proceedeth from the Father, he shall testify of me:

Romans 8:14 For as many as are led by the Spirit of God, they are the sons of God.15 For ye have not received the spirit of bondage again to fear; but ye have received the Spirit of adoption, whereby we cry, Abba, Father.16 The Spirit itself beareth witness with our spirit, that we are the children of God:

So let s look at 1 John 5:7 again in the KJV.

1 John 5:7 For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one. 8 And there are three that bear witness in earth, the Spirit, and the water, and the blood: and these three agree in one. 9 If we receive the witness of men, the witness of God is greater: for this is the witness of God which he hath testified of his Son.

For God's words to be true, then 1 John 5:7 belongs in scripture because without it, how can anyone see that God's witness is greater than the witness of men? Without verse 7, the witness in earth in verse 8 would be greater than the witness in Heaven for verse 9 to be in opposition to verse 8.

Obviously, a lot of believers back then had the problem with the doctrine of the Trinity and omitted scripture to settle & to avoid the dispute.

The flips side of the problem today is that believers use the doctrine of the Trinity as if that is how God wants us to come to Him in worship, and it is not.

The Holy Spirit dwells in us to lead us to honor the Son by testifying of Him in worship to glorify the Son; and by Him, God the Father AND not Himself. So the Holy Spirit is not leading believes to worship Himself nor to honor Himself in worship, but to honor & worship the Son and by Him, God the Father.

John 5:22 For the Father judgeth no man, but hath committed all judgment unto the Son:23 That all men should honour the Son, even as they honour the Father. He that honoureth not the Son honoureth not the Father which hath sent him.

John 15:26 But when the Comforter is come, whom I will send unto you from the Father, even the Spirit of truth, which proceedeth from the Father, he shall testify of me: 27 And ye also shall bear witness, because ye have been with me from the beginning.

John 16:13 Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth, is come, he will guide you into all truth: for he shall not speak of himself; but whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak: and he will shew you things to come.14 He shall glorify me:.......

That is what a witness does.... to avoid being a false witness.

John 5:31 If I bear witness of myself, my witness is not true.

John 7:18 He that speaketh of himself seeketh his own glory: but he that seeketh his glory that sent him, the same is true, and no unrighteousness is in him.

Is there unrighteousness in the Holy Spirit? No. So He will not lead believers to speak of Himself in seeking His own glory, but of the Lord Jesus Christ.

The Holy Spirit is a Witness for it is by sharing like testimomny of the Son in worship is how each of us as individual believer's witness is true in worship.

John 8:17 It is also written in your law, that the testimony of two men is true.

That is how we worship God in spirit and in truth by coming to the Son anywhere to worship God the Father by.

 

[Helen]

Show me any ancient writing that have no error!! Of course they do..some are many years in the audible telling before being written.
Yes the KJV has some errors..ALL bible version do...but PRAISE GOD it is NOT just any old written book..it hold Gods words, so it is a spiritual book , spiritually understood. Having stood the test of time.
But really ( OP) has nothing to to do with written errors..it is all really about doctrine, not The KJV.
Doctrine is what is revealed to the heart, by the Holy Spirit...and as someone has already said...confirmed to us by two or three witnesses. When we all stand before the Lord, He will not examine our doctrine...He will examine our HEART... People can have perfect doctrine and a hard, harsh, critical, uncaring heart. He will come looking for FRUIT..His fruit...fruit of the Spirit...not doctrine.
My two cents.

 

[JesusIsFaithful]

But really ( OP) has nothing to to do with written errors..it is all really about doctrine, not The KJV.

The OP was addressing the claims of error in the KJV at the anti KJV site. I have not approached doctrine yet nor will I in this thread.

Doctrine is what is revealed to the heart, by the Holy Spirit...and as someone has already said...confirmed to us by two or three witnesses. When we all stand before the Lord, He will not examine our doctrine...He will examine our HEART... People can have perfect doctrine and a hard, harsh, critical, uncaring heart. He will come looking for FRUIT..His fruit...fruit of the Spirit...not doctrine.
My two cents.

Thanks for sharing..but...

If it is a perfect doctrine, the how can it be, unless confirmed by the Holy Spirit and the Lord Jesus Christ at that throne of grace?

The truth can be harsh sometime, but it is still the truth.

Galatians 4:16Am I therefore become your enemy, because I tell you the truth?

When a doctrine has a lie in it, regardless of other truths mentioned or referred in it, it cannot be of the truth and the Holy Spirit will have none of it as a "doctrine".

1 John 2:20 But ye have an unction from the Holy One, and ye know all things. 21 I have not written unto you because ye know not the truth, but because ye know it, and that no lie is of the truth............26 These things have I written unto you concerning them that seduce you. 27 But the anointing which ye have received of him abideth in you, and ye need not that any man teach you: but as the same anointing teacheth you of all things, and is truth, and is no lie, and even as it hath taught you, ye shall abide in him. 28 And now, little children, abide in him; that, when he shall appear, we may have confidence, and not be ashamed before him at his coming.

So, as you say.. the Holy Spirit will reveal that doctrine of truth or He will reprove that doctrine as not totally of the truth and therefore a lie which cannot be received as doctrine to follow by. That is not to say we are to disregard the truths mentioned in the doctrine, but the doctrine cannot be used by those truths to carry a lie in our walk with the Lord Jesus Christ in fellowship with the Father & the Son as living as His disciples & no other.

 

[Abiding Grace]

The OP was addressing the claims of error in the KJV at the anti KJV site. I have not approached doctrine yet nor will I in this thread.



Thanks for sharing..but...

If it is a perfect doctrine, the how can it be, unless confirmed by the Holy Spirit and the Lord Jesus Christ at that throne of grace?

The truth can be harsh sometime, but it is still the truth.

Galatians 4:16Am I therefore become your enemy, because I tell you the truth?

When a doctrine has a lie in it, regardless of other truths mentioned or referred in it, it cannot be of the truth and the Holy Spirit will have none of it as a "doctrine".

1 John 2:20 But ye have an unction from the Holy One, and ye know all things. 21 I have not written unto you because ye know not the truth, but because ye know it, and that no lie is of the truth............26 These things have I written unto you concerning them that seduce you. 27 But the anointing which ye have received of him abideth in you, and ye need not that any man teach you: but as the same anointing teacheth you of all things, and is truth, and is no lie, and even as it hath taught you, ye shall abide in him. 28 And now, little children, abide in him; that, when he shall appear, we may have confidence, and not be ashamed before him at his coming.

So, as you say.. the Holy Spirit will reveal that doctrine of truth or He will reprove that doctrine as not totally of the truth and therefore a lie which cannot be received as doctrine to follow by. That is not to say we are to disregard the truths mentioned in the doctrine, but the doctrine cannot be used by those truths to carry a lie in our walk with the Lord Jesus Christ in fellowship with the Father & the Son as living as His disciples & no other.

An 'anti-KJV' site? Seriously?

 

[JesusIsFaithful]

An 'anti-KJV' site? Seriously?

Yes. StanJ who is a member here, had introduced the site in this thread in post #11. Rather than make that thread totally about that site, I started another thread so as to prove why believers should prove everything By Him, no matter what the christian site is just as they are to prove everything that is taught them at church or by their favorite preacher.

The link to the other thread that I have started is:

Addressing KJV Errors

The christian site discussed at that link in this forum seemed to include a web page to show errors in the KJV, and hopefully, the Lord has shown why everything needs to be proven by Him, and not just everything at face value.

 

[kiwimac]

While I disagree with much of the theology taught at "KJV Only" advocates refuted! it is not an "Anti-KJV" site simply because it points out the failings of KJV Onlyism.

 

[JesusIsFaithful]

While I disagree with much of the theology taught at "KJV Only" advocates refuted! it is not an "Anti-KJV" site simply because it points out the failings of KJV Onlyism.

It does not really address the claims of KJVonlyism. It is merely attacking the KJV translation. They refer to the claims of KJVOnlyism in general reference, but hardly countering the extremism coming out of KJVOnlyism for condemning believers for using another Bible.

It is hard to NOT see it as an anti-KJV site when they are trying to knock it down to refer to a supposedly easier to read modern Bible version.

If the opponents against the KJV are saying that it does not matter which Bible you use, then why the knock down of the KJV? So it is hard to see it as not a anti-KJV site without talking out of both sides of their mouths there.

Whereas the reasons why I rely only on the KJV for the meat of His words in defending teh faith which is the good fight is explained at this thread at this forum.

Using Only the KJV in Defending the Faith in Jesus Christ

 

[Jun2u]

The current Christian 'understanding' of The Trinity and The Godhead, is not correct. Christian ministers have relied on 'vanity' to interpret the Word of God. Not one has seriously consulted with God, in order to properly interpret The Word. They may be 'ordained by man', but are they 'anointed by God'? God cares nothing about educational 'diplomas/degrees'. He wants each of us, to search for the truth, individually, by seeking wisdom from Him [seek/knock/ask].

Review Isaiah 44:6, John 1:18 and 5:37, Acts 7:55-56, Matthew 3:17 and 17:5, 2 Peter 1:17, Revelation 1:6 and chapters 4 & 5. Add to this, the knowledge that Isaiah feared for his life, when he saw the figure on the throne, and therefore, ASSUMED he had seen The Lord of Hosts. Did he in fact see The Lord of Hosts, or actually, see The Lord God Almighty?

In the spring of 2003, I experienced a vision, followed by a dream, 'in riddles' [Numbers 12:6 KJV Bible]. The vision had FOUR figures present, not THREE. The vision was controlled by two figures, who I was not allowed to see. A channel went upwards from me, through pure white clouds, to it seemed, forever. It was made known to me, that The Father and His Holy Spirit, were at the far end of this channel, but I was not allowed to see them. At the end of the vision, Christ appeared, standing on the right hand of The Lord God Almighty, in the clouds, to the right of the channel. Both figures were identical in appearance (Caucasian men in their early thirties, with well-groomed/combed black short hair, dressed in pure white robes, and clean-shaven) and were in total subjection to the two figures at the end of the channel.

The real TRINITY consists of The Father of The Lord God Almighty, His Holy Spirit, and The Lord God Almighty [The SON of The Trinity]. The GODHEAD consists of The Lord God Almighty [The FATHER of ALL CREATION] and His only begotten Son [Lord of Hosts and Son of Man], per Isaiah 44:6.

The Holy spirit created The Lord of Hosts, from sperm taken from The Lord God Almighty. The Holy Spirit later implanted The Lord of Hosts in Mary, as an embryo/fetus. The body of Mary was used to provide nutrients until The Son of Man could be born. At the age of thirty, The Son of Man was again in the same image of Himself, as Lord of Hosts [Christ's response to Philip, "If you see me, you see The Father."]. The physical appearance characteristics of Mary had no influence on the physical appearance of The Son of Man.

 

[Jun2u]

The Bible is written by God, and authoritative, and trustworthy, and therefore without errors, for God does everything perfectly!

If there are any “apparent” errors/contradictions in scriptures it is because of man’s misunderstanding of the passage.

For example, the phrase “first day of the week” that we read about in Mt 28:1 is erroneously translated. The Greek word “Sabaton” is a plural word which is the translated English word “Sabbaths,” and why did the translators of King James translated it to the English word “week” which is a singular word? What authority did the translators have to change a plural word into a singular word or vice-versa? None. And note the word “day” is italicized to warn the reader it is not in the original manuscript.

Mt 28:1 should effectively be read, “In the end of the Sabbaths (Sabaton) as it began to dawn towards the first of the Sabbaths (Sabaton)...” Likewise with Mr 16:2; and Lk 24:1.

Check me out to see if the Greek word “Sabaton” is written twice in Mt 28:1. We cannot see this in our English Bibles. In fact, Mt 28:1 is so ominous that it can be used to contradict those who say we must continue to worship on the Seventh Day Sabbath.

Why did God allow the above to happen? In my opinion, to foster unbelief!

Yes, every translation of the Bible will contain errors and apparent contradictions but NEVER, NEVER in the original manuscripts.

To God Be The Glory

 

[Abiding Grace]

Yes. StanJ who is a member here, had introduced the site in this thread in post #11. Rather than make that thread totally about that site, I started another thread so as to prove why believers should prove everything By Him, no matter what the christian site is just as they are to prove everything that is taught them at church or by their favorite preacher.

The link to the other thread that I have started is:

Addressing KJV Errors

The christian site discussed at that link in this forum seemed to include a web page to show errors in the KJV, and hopefully, the Lord has shown why everything needs to be proven by Him, and not just everything at face value.

I see. The site that Stan put up is honest and accurate. There is nothing in it that is ANTI-KJV. Here is a good book that speaks to the errors in the KJV. The Unbound Scriptures: A Review of KJV-only Claims and Publications: Rick Norris: 9780974546209: Amazon.com: Books

http://www.kjvonly.org/

Fred's Bible Talk - The Unbound Scriptures: A Review of KJV-only Claims and Publications

I've read it twice. He isn't against the KJV in any way. It is KJVOnlyism that he objects to based upon solid reasoning.

We've discovered thousands of evidences in the manuscripts since the KJV translated. More to that, that KJV translators never claimed their work was perfect and in fact, recommended that we use other translations for study.

I grew up on the KJV. My Pastor for those years would have had a stroke if anyone had suggested a new translation. While I'm exaggerating some, he really would have called down hellfire and brimstone. In many ways, I understand the KJVO movement, but its now become just the number one reason for church splits and division among the brethren. Its leadership is thoroughly corrupt and based upon deliberate lies. That should be troubling for ALL Christians.

I encourage your love of scripture.

 

[OzSpen]

No, this is NOT fantasy. I asked God for this understanding, and He gave it to me. Have you ever asked God for a true understanding of the scriptures? Start with the scriptures, and then ask God for a true understanding of them. Forget what the 'blind' ministers have taught you. They rely on college or university degrees/diplomas, and man's 'ordination'.

When you read the historical generations pertaining to the Israelites, in the Book of Genesis, you will find the term 'BEGAT' being used. This is one of the tenses of the verb 'begit/beget'. The Lord of Hosts was 'begotten' of/from God. In all cases, male sperm is used. In the case of The Lord of Hosts, no female was involved, thus, an exact duplicate, is created. In the case of The Son of Man, The Lord of Hosts 'WAS IN' the Christ Child ['God with us']. The body of Mary did NOT change the physical appearance of Christ. God showed me, that there is only ONE ANSWER to how this could happen. The Holy Ghost implanted The Lord of Hosts in Mary, as a human embryo/fetus, that contained The Lord of Hosts. Remember, man is created in the image of God. 'The Lord of Hosts/Son of Man' is in the 'exact image' of The Lord God Almighty.

To me, that sounds like an invented doctrine out of the mind of Thorwald. It's not a view supported by Scripture. If what God speaks to you doesn't agree with Scripture, I discard it. 'God with us' affirms that Jesus is God (Matt 1:23).

 

[OzSpen]

The Bible is written by God, and authoritative, and trustworthy, and therefore without errors, for God does everything perfectly!

If there are any “apparent” errors/contradictions in scriptures it is because of man’s misunderstanding of the passage.

For example, the phrase “first day of the week” that we read about in Mt 28:1 is erroneously translated. The Greek word “Sabaton” is a plural word which is the translated English word “Sabbaths,” and why did the translators of King James translated it to the English word “week” which is a singular word? What authority did the translators have to change a plural word into a singular word or vice-versa? None. And note the word “day” is italicized to warn the reader it is not in the original manuscript.

Mt 28:1 should effectively be read, “In the end of the Sabbaths (Sabaton) as it began to dawn towards the first of the Sabbaths (Sabaton)...” Likewise with Mr 16:2; and Lk 24:1.

Check me out to see if the Greek word “Sabaton” is written twice in Mt 28:1. We cannot see this in our English Bibles. In fact, Mt 28:1 is so ominous that it can be used to contradict those who say we must continue to worship on the Seventh Day Sabbath.

Jun2u,

The major problem with your opinion is that you don't know the nuances of the Greek language and how it described the Jewish idiom of the meaning of days. R C H Lenski explained the meaning of Matt 28:1:

The Jews had no names for the week-days but designated them with reference to their Sabbath; thus mia (supply hmera) twn sabbatwn, "the first (day) with reference to the Sabbath," i.e., following it. The names of the festivals are frequently plural, and thus the plural sabbata was also used although it referred only to the one "Sabbath." Matthew agrees with Luke's "very early in the morning" (A. V.); and with John's "when it was yet dark"; and does not conflict with Mark's "at the rising of the sun." Since they started before the dawn while it was yet dark, the sun was rising about the time the women reached the tomb. Why were they on their way so early? For the best of reasons even as all the evangelists record this point, Jesus had been dead since Friday. In that climate dead bodies started to decompose very quickly, wherefore also the dead are buried on the same day, or, if it is too late for that day, on the next. Great haste was necessary in the thinking of these women, even hours counted if they wanted to find Jesus' body in such a condition that it could still be managed (Lenski 1943:1148)​

Therefore, the KJV, NIV, ESV, NASB, HCSB, NET, Douay-Rheims, NRSV Wycliffe and other translations all are correct with their use of the singular Sabbath because the singular was often expressed as the plural. In addition, since the Jews had no numbers for days of the week, the days were numbered in reference to the Sabbath(s).

So I can conclude that your statement, 'the phrase “first day of the week” that we read about in Mt 28:1 is erroneously translated' is incorrect. The KJV is a correct translation.

Oz

Works consulted
Lenski, R C H 1943/1961. Commentary on the New Testament: The interpretation of St. Matthew’s Gospel. Minneapolis MN: The Wartburg Press/Augsburg Publishing House (Hendrickson Publishers, Inc. edn.).

 

[Jun2u]

Jun2u,

The major problem with your opinion is that you don't know the nuances of the Greek language and how it described the Jewish idiom of the meaning of days. R C H Lenski explained the meaning of Matt 28:1:

The Jews had no names for the week-days but designated them with reference to their Sabbath; thus mia (supply hmera) twn sabbatwn, "the first (day) with reference to the Sabbath," i.e., following it. The names of the festivals are frequently plural, and thus the plural sabbata was also used although it referred only to the one "Sabbath." Matthew agrees with Luke's "very early in the morning" (A. V.); and with John's "when it was yet dark"; and does not conflict with Mark's "at the rising of the sun." Since they started before the dawn while it was yet dark, the sun was rising about the time the women reached the tomb. Why were they on their way so early? For the best of reasons even as all the evangelists record this point, Jesus had been dead since Friday. In that climate dead bodies started to decompose very quickly, wherefore also the dead are buried on the same day, or, if it is too late for that day, on the next. Great haste was necessary in the thinking of these women, even hours counted if they wanted to find Jesus' body in such a condition that it could still be managed (Lenski 1943:1148)​

Therefore, the KJV, NIV, ESV, NASB, HCSB, NET, Douay-Rheims, NRSV Wycliffe and other translations all are correct with their use of the singular Sabbath because the singular was often expressed as the plural. In addition, since the Jews had no numbers for days of the week, the days were numbered in reference to the Sabbath(s).

So I can conclude that your statement, 'the phrase “first day of the week” that we read about in Mt 28:1 is erroneously translated' is incorrect. The KJV is a correct translation.

Oz

Works consulted
Lenski, R C H 1943/1961. Commentary on the New Testament: The interpretation of St. Matthew’s Gospel. Minneapolis MN: The Wartburg Press/Augsburg Publishing House (Hendrickson Publishers, Inc. edn.).

Oz

So you would rather trust a man whose work at best is tainted by sin than the word of God. What does Scripture say, “Let God be true and every man a liar?” (Ro 3:4).

In my first post I’ve challenged the reader to check me out to see if the English word “week” was really the same Greek word “Sabbaths.” We cannot see this error in the English or any foreign Bible translations. Furthermore, I’ve explained that we cannot change a plural word into a singular word or vice versa. The word “Sabbaths” is plural and the word “week” is singular and this is how we learned it while going to school. A plural word is plural and a singular word is singular and cannot be interchanged.

However, you came on strong by throwing a commentary not of your own making but based on someone else’ work, as if the commentary was authoritative. Had you and your commentator knew the concept of Part A of Mt 28:1 both would not have arrived at a wrong conclusion.

People just don’t know how to read and understand scriptures and the above is one of those times. If you want to check me out grab hold of Westcott & Hort Greek New Testament – Literal Translation.

To God Be The Glory

 

[OzSpen]

Oz

So you would rather trust a man whose work at best is tainted by sin than the word of God. What does Scripture say, “Let God be true and every man a liar?” (Ro 3:4).

In my first post I’ve challenged the reader to check me out to see if the English word “week” was really the same Greek word “Sabbaths.” We cannot see this error in the English or any foreign Bible translations. Furthermore, I’ve explained that we cannot change a plural word into a singular word or vice versa. The word “Sabbaths” is plural and the word “week” is singular and this is how we learned it while going to school. A plural word is plural and a singular word is singular and cannot be interchanged.

However, you came on strong by throwing a commentary not of your own making but based on someone else’ work, as if the commentary was authoritative. Had you and your commentator knew the concept of Part A of Mt 28:1 both would not have arrived at a wrong conclusion.

People just don’t know how to read and understand scriptures and the above is one of those times. If you want to check me out grab hold of Westcott & Hort Greek New Testament – Literal Translation.

To God Be The Glory

Jun2u,

I provided you with an exegetical understanding of the Greek grammar. You don't want to believe that. So be it.

You don't like the fact that I used a commentary. What does a person do who writes a commentary. He or she is a Bible teacher. Yes, a teacher! There is biblical support for taking notice of teachers:

• Prov 23:12 (NIV), 'Apply your heart to instruction and your ears to words of knowledge'.
• Jesus commanded us to teach the nations: '“Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit, teaching them to observe all that I commanded you; and lo, I am with you always, even to the end of the age” (Matt 28:19-20 NIV).
• ' So Christ himself gave the apostles, the prophets, the evangelists, the pastors and teachers, 12 to equip his people for works of service, so that the body of Christ may be built up 13 until we all reach unity in the faith and in the knowledge of the Son of God and become mature, attaining to the whole measure of the fullness of Christ' (Eph 4:11-13 NIV).
• 'Let the message of Christ dwell among you richly as you teach and admonish one another with all wisdom through psalms, hymns, and songs from the Spirit, singing to God with gratitude in your hearts' (Col 3:16 NIV).

You have come down on the wrong side of the Bible.

God's Word convinces me that I should listen to and read God's teachers. However, I have to be a Berean: 'Now the Berean Jews were of more noble character than those in Thessalonica, for they received the message with great eagerness and examined the Scriptures every day to see if what Paul said was true' (Acts 17:11 NIV).

Oz

 

[JesusIsFaithful]

I see. The site that Stan put up is honest and accurate. There is nothing in it that is ANTI-KJV. Here is a good book that speaks to the errors in the KJV. The Unbound Scriptures: A Review of KJV-only Claims and Publications: Rick Norris: 9780974546209: Amazon.com: Books

http://www.kjvonly.org/

Fred's Bible Talk - The Unbound Scriptures: A Review of KJV-only Claims and Publications

I've read it twice. He isn't against the KJV in any way. It is KJVOnlyism that he objects to based upon solid reasoning.

We've discovered thousands of evidences in the manuscripts since the KJV translated. More to that, that KJV translators never claimed their work was perfect and in fact, recommended that we use other translations for study.

I grew up on the KJV. My Pastor for those years would have had a stroke if anyone had suggested a new translation. While I'm exaggerating some, he really would have called down hellfire and brimstone. In many ways, I understand the KJVO movement, but its now become just the number one reason for church splits and division among the brethren. Its leadership is thoroughly corrupt and based upon deliberate lies. That should be troubling for ALL Christians.

I encourage your love of scripture.

May I ask you what you believe John 16:13 is testifying about? Is it not saying that the Holy Spirit cannot speak for Himself, that He can only speak what He hears? All modern Bibles including the KJV has that testimony, and yet all modern Bibles contradict that testimony in Romans 8:26-27 as if the Holy Spirit can utter His own intercessions by Himself whereas the KJV has kept the meaning of that message where His intercessions cannot be uttered nor spoken by the Holy Spirit which is why ANOTHER knowing the mind of the Spirit is needed for the Spirit's intercessions to be made known to the Father. This testimony lines up with scripture in John 16:13 in the KJV ONLY keeping the truth in His words that the Holy Spirit CANNOT use God's gift of tongues as a prayer language, BUT because modern Bibles does not keep that testimony of John 16:13 in their Romans 8:26-27, believers today believe that this other spirit coming over them later on in life apart from their salvation is the Holy Spirit bringing this tongue which NEVER comes with interpretation but is babbling nonsense supernatural tongue that is fund in the world as the scripture testify it as being of the occult; Isaiah 8:19

There is no receiving the Holy Spirit apart from salvation but many believers believes this apostasy that brings that worldly supernatural tongue as being of God and ALL modern Bibles mislead them in Romans 8:26-27 and thus glossing over John 16:13 as if it does not contradict at all.

It is because of the falling away from the faith is why I am relying only on the KJV for the meat of His words to discern good & evil by it; but I point out that only Jesus Christ can give that wisdom to understand His words to discern good & evil by it.

The other glossing over the scripture by those that have fallen away from the faith as prophesied in 1 Timothy 4:1-2 is that they ignore Paul's warning about any one saying stuff like that where they believe they can receive the Holy Spirit apart from salvation; 2 Corinthians 11;1-4

I do not know about KJVOnlyism enough to represent them, but I do know the KJV is keeping the truth in His words as no lie can be of the truth whereas all modern Bibles are not keeping all the truths in His words. Those who loves Him & His words would prefer to use only the KJV in these latter days where many are falling away from the faith in droves.

 

[Abiding Grace]

May I ask you what you believe John 16:13 is testifying about? Is it not saying that the Holy Spirit cannot speak for Himself, that He can only speak what He hears? All modern Bibles including the KJV has that testimony, and yet all modern Bibles contradict that testimony in Romans 8:26-27 as if the Holy Spirit can utter His own intercessions by Himself whereas the KJV has kept the meaning of that message where His intercessions cannot be uttered nor spoken by the Holy Spirit which is why ANOTHER knowing the mind of the Spirit is needed for the Spirit's intercessions to be made known to the Father. This testimony lines up with scripture in John 16:13 in the KJV ONLY keeping the truth in His words that the Holy Spirit CANNOT use God's gift of tongues as a prayer language, BUT because modern Bibles does not keep that testimony of John 16:13 in their Romans 8:26-27, believers today believe that this other spirit coming over them later on in life apart from their salvation is the Holy Spirit bringing this tongue which NEVER comes with interpretation but is babbling nonsense supernatural tongue that is fund in the world as the scripture testify it as being of the occult; Isaiah 8:19

Are you unaware of Trinity? God the Father, God the Son and God the Holy Spirit?

Your post is all over the place. Perhaps one point at a time so as to establish the proper setting and context. It matters.