Robert Gwin
Well-Known Member
That is not a translation "error", that is a translation "choice" made by the KJ translators, who followed the lead of the NT Apostles and disciples, who were filled with the Holy Ghost. Look again at what I said in response to the question.
"The "LORD" (JEHOVAH) said unto my "Lord" (Adonai)"?
What translation error?
It's quoted in Matthew 22:44; Luke 20:42; Acts 2:34."
Matthew 22:44 in koine Greek reads:
Εἶπεν ὁ κύριος τῷ κυρίῳ μου· Κάθου ἐκ δεξιῶν μου ἕως ἂν θῶ τοὺς ἐχθρούς σου ὑποπόδιον τῶν ποδῶν σου
Show me where Matthew the Apostle, under inspiration of the Holy Ghost, uses "IEOVAH" or the Greek equivalent of "Ιεχώβα" or even "ΙΑΩ". Show me one single NT Ms in koine Greek out of the many we have extant that Ps. 110:1 was translated as you would, rather than as done.
Luke 20:42 in the koine Greek reads:
καὶ αὐτὸς Δαβὶδ λέγει ἐν βίβλῳ ψαλμῶν Εἶπεν ὁ κύριος τῷ κυρίῳ μου· Κάθου ἐκ δεξιῶν μου
Show me where Luke the Physician and Gospel writer, under inspiration of the Holy Ghost, uses "IEOVAH" or the Greek equivalent of "Ιεχώβα" or even "ΙΑΩ". Show me one single NT Ms in koine Greek out of the many we have extant that Ps. 110:1 was translated as you would, rather than as done.
Acts 2:34 in the koine Greek reads:
οὐ γὰρ Δαβὶδ ἀνέβη εἰς τοὺς οὐρανούς λέγει δὲ αὐτός Εἶπεν ὁ κύριος τῷ κυρίῳ μου Κάθου ἐκ δεξιῶν μου
Show me where Luke the Physician and Acts writer, under inspiration of the Holy Ghost, uses "IEOVAH" or the Greek equivalent of "Ιεχώβα" or even "ΙΑΩ". Show me one single NT Ms in koine Greek out of the many we have extant that Ps. 110:1 was translated as you would, rather than as done.
Even the so called lxx (origens hexapla) in Psalms 109:1 (110:1) does this:
τῷ Δαυιδ ψαλμός εἶπεν ὁ κύριος τῷ κυρίῳ μου κάθου ἐκ δεξιῶν μου ἕως ἂν θῶ τοὺς ἐχθρούς σου ὑποπόδιον τῶν ποδῶν σου
You say that a proper translation needs to have JEHOVAH. Why then does the NWT in those 3 NT places not, as you say, properly translate, "kurious" to Lord, rather than to JEHOVAH? What is the difference? There is none. It is simply a translation choice.
The NWT likes to make the name JEHOVAH common. That is their choice.
The KJB likes to make the name JEHOVAH rare, so as not to make it common. That is their choice. The KJB translators did not want the name JEHOVAH so common it became non sacred. For instance, I do not go around using my earthly father's name except in specific and rare circumstances. When I speak to my earthly father, I say, "Dad", "Father", etc and keep his actual name in reserve, for respect. I am not his equal in familial authority.
Matthew was a NT Jew. They all used the name of God, rarely.
Even Luke (supposedly a Greek), followed in the same fashion as those who sought not to abuse the name by speaking or writing it commonly.
Don't misunderstand me. There are two extremes. The one extreme is found in the NWT, translating JEHOVAH everywhere, even in the NT, where not a single koine Greek Ms exists to support doing so, and making the name common. The other extreme removes the name JEHOVAH entirely from OT such as some modern 'translations' into English do. The KJB avoids both extremes.
So, why do you fault the KJB translators in the OT, and you do not fault the NWT in the NT? Why do you fault the KJB translators in the OT for translating those texts, even as the NT writers Matthew and Luke, under inspiration of the Holy Ghost, did?
You got the point RE, deliberately changing God's name to LORD is extremely severe. In fact I would venture to say that manipulation is one of the biggest factors in people rejecting Jehovah today. I proved my case.
