The "watch rapture view"

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TribulationSigns

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No, they asked two questions. They only asked about one sign of His coming and the end of the age/world. They did not ask about the sign of His coming and also ask about the sign of the end of the age/world. You should try actually reading Mark 13 and Luke 21 so you can get the full picture of the Olivet Discourse and so that you don't make one account contradict the others.

Mark 13:3 And as he sat upon the mount of Olives over against the temple, Peter and James and John and Andrew asked him privately, 4 Tell us, when shall these things be? and what shall be the sign when all these things shall be fulfilled?

Luke 21:7 And they asked him, saying, Master, but when shall these things be? and what sign will there be when these things shall come to pass?

See that? They asked two questions, as can be clearly seen in Mark and Luke's accounts. Matthew worded the second question a bit differently so that people could see that they asked about two different events (1. Destruction of the temple buildings 2. His coming at the end of the age), which is not clear from reading the accounts in Mark and Luke.

Why else would anyone not take the time to notice how inconsistent, conflicting, and unsound the foundation of this whole theory actually is? It simply does not fit the context, the narrative, or the declarations of the prophetic text. This is why they have to artificially divide the one verse into two different eras "in order to" force it to fit their narrative.

Mark 13:4
  • "Tell us, when shall these things be? and what shall be the sign when all these things shall be fulfilled?"
There is not the slightest suggestion here that this verse speaks of two entirely different eras. It's speaking of ONE EVENT, which is when these things occur, then will be the sign of His coming. If they believe in the 70 AD theory then it's easy for people to distort this passage (and others like it) and claim without any Biblical validation, that it refers to two different eras entirely. As an example, it's easier for me to believe that Satan was not bound at the cross "if" I hold to a Dispensationalist theory. To dig deeper and understand his true binding requires the honor of us working to search out a matter.

And I knew that you insisted on the destruction of Jewish Temple in 70AD...which was NOT the prophecy that Christ declared. Sure a physical Temple was destroyed, sure there is great physical tribulation, sure people may have fled into physical mountains, sure there is literal famine in the world, sure there is literal pestilence, etc., etc. But NONE of that is the fulfillment of any of Christ's prophecies. Was the gospel preached to all nations in 70 AD? Of course not! Did immediately after the tribulation of those days, the physical sun became dark and the stars fell from heaven in 70AD? Of course not! The point is, just because a great deal of people believe prophecy is literal and easily understood, doesn't mean that it actually is. As it is written:

Proverbs 25:2
  • "It is the glory of God to conceal a thing: but the honour of kings is to search out a matter."
It's not the honor of kings to look at famines in the world and say it fulfills prophecy, or broken down Temples and say it fulfills prophecy, nor to say Jewish people fleeing into mountains when the Romans came fulfill prophecy. The honor is in knowing and believing that God conceals things, and those who honorably reign with Christ, have the mind of Christ, and the Spirit to search out the "truth of the matter." Selah.
 

Spiritual Israelite

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Yet you have not refuted anything.


You are saying this becasue you cannot refute what I wrote.


No, you are being ludicrous. You do not have a spiritual understanding of what Christ talked about in the first two verses of Matthew 24, for example:

Mat 24:1-2
(1) And Jesus went out, and departed from the temple: and his disciples came to him for to shew him the buildings of the temple.
(2) And Jesus said unto them, See ye not all these things? verily I say unto you, There shall not be left here one stone upon another, that shall not be thrown down.

I have no problem with them saying the disciples spoke of the literal temple (G2411 - hieron). IN fact, we can see it's quite obvious. The disciples were NOT greatly enlightened as yet so were still thinking in terms of the Old Testament dispensation, as the Holy Spirit of "revealing" had not been poured out at Pentecost yet.

John 16:12
  • "I have yet many things to say unto you, but ye cannot bear them now.
  • Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth, is come, he will guide you into all truth: for he shall not speak of himself; but whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak: and he will shew you things to come.
  • He shall glorify me: for he shall receive of mine, and shall shew it unto you."
John 14:26
  • "But the Comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you all things, and bring all things to your remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto you."
Revelation is not instant, as many things were revealed to the Disciples progressively. We can see remnants of this "even" after Pentecost as Peter was talking about requiring circumcision in the church, and his poor understanding of the lawfulness of eating unclean meats. We're talking about progressive Revelation here, bud! The Disciples were still thinking in terms of Old Testament Temple, when Christ was revealing the mystery of new and Spiritual things that the emporal merely "represented." Christ is illuminating (to them, and by extention, us) the fall of the Old Testament Temple as a type of the Old Testament congregation, and the coming restoration/rebuilding of the Temple and Holy City in the New Testament type of the New Testament body of Christ--which is the church (Acts 15:14-17).

Note the language as Christ "went out of the Temple," and He "departed from it." Granted, it may seem coincidental language that this is when they pointed out the Temple buildings. But it has a Spiritual meaning! The Disciples are illustrating the great pride they (being Jews) had in this glorious building, and such reverence for the greatness of it as the pride of Israel. They put so much stock in their bloodline and Jewish traditions, when without Christ their Messiah, this was all meaningless. What it represented would be thrown down. Selah! Many of the Jews (and their cousins the Premillennialists, Dispensationalists, PReterists, and oh yes, like YOU and Preterism infused amillennialists today) had put all their trust in the natural/physical/temporal, and God was prophesying in the Spiritual--which isn't an anomaly since this is what Christ did throughout His ministry. Just like when the disciples' brethren, the Jews, asked Jesus for a sign. And He gave them one, even though they didn't even realize it or its significance. They missed it because they were thinking like many in the church today, in terms of a literal Temple being destroyed, and Christ was responding to their question by prophesying in spiritual terms. Not one stone left standing one upon another is very specific illustrating that it is completely vanished, totally GONE! It no longer represented the Holy One of Israel. The Disciples in that episode were glorying over a building, and Christ is saying what it represents will be taken away completely in God's economy. His words are not ever coincidental, they are deliberate. Again, as in His promise of the sign to the Jews (which they asked for) was fulfilled, and all they could think about was a literal build--just li the congregation today. But whether or not men ever understand what Temple Christ was speaking of, doesn't mean that he spoke of a physical, literal, brick Temple. Because the Holy Spirit being poured out at Pentecost would eventually reveal the "real" deeper Spiritual truth of His words--to His people. e.g., when Christ threw the buyers and sellers out of the Temple (G2411 - hieron)

John 2:18-21

  • "Then answered the Jews and said unto him, What sign shewest thou unto us, seeing that thou doest these things?
  • Jesus answered and said unto them, Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up.
  • Then said the Jews, Forty and six years was this temple in building, and wilt thou rear it up in three days?
  • But he spake of the temple of his body."
That word Temple Christ used there is a different word (G3485 - naos), but it is obvious that the words are interchangeable as the Jews spoke of the physical building, declaring it took 46 years to build. And note Christ never told them that He spoke of the Temple of His body, it remained a mystery to them. But it is written by the Apostle John for us, who would come after and receive the deeper Spiritual truth of His words. True to His words, they did destroy the Temple, and Christ did raise it up in three days, and it was the sign that Jesus had the power/authority to do these things--as they had asked. A sign that many are blinded to from that day to this very day.

The truth is many Jews looked upon the Gentiles as Dogs and Swine and gloried in the fact that they were the chosen seed of Abraham that could never fall from that (in their minds). Even as many in the premillennial/Dispensational church today think the church can never fall. But the fact is, they did fall and the congregation today is no better than the congregation was then. Because their eyes were on the temporal rather than the Spiritual, even as the Disciples were admiring the great buildings of the Jewish nation. The Premillennial and Dispensational church today feels the very same way about the nation of Israel's position because their hermeneutic is almost identical in its looking at God's word only literally (John 3:4) and to some degree having great disdain for God authored Spiritual truths. It's simply the other side of that "exact same" coin of methodology. Stones represent the people--both those who fell and those who would be raised up/ built again, when we understand the builder and maker is God. i.e.:

Matthew 3:9-10
  • "And think not to say within yourselves, We have Abraham to our father: for I say unto you, that God is able of these stones to raise up children unto Abraham.
  • And now also the axe is laid unto the root of the trees: therefore every tree which bringeth not forth good fruit is hewn down, and cast into the fire."
Yes, God was able of those stones to raise up children unto Abraham, And He Did! Not literal stones, but Spiritual ones. Get it, humm?

Galatians 3:29
  • "And if ye be Christ's, then are ye Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the promise."
Nothing coincidental about the language of God raising up stones as the children of Abraham, though it may seem so to many who seem antithetical to the Spirit of truth. Nothing coincidental about stones being the building of the church, or the stones being made of wood hay and stubble, or of gold silver and precious gems "when we gracefully receive God authored Spiritual truths!" The word temple (G2411 - hieron) used by the Disciples doesn't preclude Christ from talking about a spiritual Temple any more than the word temple (G3485 - naos) that the Jews used in saying it took 46 years to build it precluded Christ from speaking of His body and not whatever building the Jews spoke of.
You make simple things complicated and that's entirely your own fault. You imagine yourself to have more spiritual discernment than everyone else because of spiritualizing almost everything. Having spiritual discernment means being able to discern the difference between text that speaks of literal, physical things and text that is speaking of spiritual things. You are not very good at that. I have refuted your claims many times before, so don't tell me I can't refute your nonsense.

It's very clear that the disciples were talking about the physical temple buildings standing at that time and Jesus said they would be destroyed. Then the first question they asked Him in the Olivet Discourse is when the temple buildings would be destroyed and He answered that question. The answer can be found in Matthew 24:15-22, Mark 13:14-20 and Luke 21:20-24. Jerusalem and the temple buildings were destroyed in 70 AD, fulfilling Daniel 9:26-27 and fulfilling what Jesus prophesied in the Olivet Discourse as well as His prophecy about the destruction of Jerusalem in Luke 19:41-44.

Not up to me. Go talk with God yourself for understanding. :)
I've done that many times. I suggest you try it (James 1:5-7).
 

Spiritual Israelite

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Why else would anyone not take the time to notice how inconsistent, conflicting, and unsound the foundation of this whole theory actually is? It simply does not fit the context, the narrative, or the declarations of the prophetic text. This is why they have to artificially divide the one verse into two different eras "in order to" force it to fit their narrative.

Mark 13:4
  • "Tell us, when shall these things be? and what shall be the sign when all these things shall be fulfilled?"
There is not the slightest suggestion here that this verse speaks of two entirely different eras.
That is why Matthew worded the questions differently to show that. I don't doubt that the disciples, at that time, probably assumed that Christ's second coming and the end of the age would occur when the temple buildings were destroyed, but that is not what happened.

It's speaking of ONE EVENT,
No, it isn't. Your denial that Jesus said anything at all about the temple buildings being destroyed despite the fact that Him making that claim is what spawned the Olivet Discourse in the first place is nothing more than a joke.
 

Douggg

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The context of verse 22 is in relation to Judea, not the entire earth. You are changing the text to fit your doctrine.
21 For then shall be great tribulation, such as was not since the beginning of the world to this time, no, nor ever shall be.

22 And except those days should be shortened, there should no flesh be saved: but for the elect's sake those days shall be shortened.

Considering in verse 21, the great tribulation will be unmatched in the history of the world, nor ever matched afterward, the entire world is impacted to the extent no flesh should survive it - unless it is shortened before reaching that point.

----------------------------------------------------------

To recap your view, you think that both Luke 21:20-24 and Matthew 24:15-22 are the 70 AD event ?
 

Spiritual Israelite

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Also @Spiritual Israelite, no one is privately interpreting stones of the Temple to represent God's people; Christ is.
That has nothing to do with the Olivet Discourse. Why can't you get it through your head that John 2:18-21 has nothing to do with the Olivet Discourse? It has a completely different context.
 
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TribulationSigns

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No, it does not.

Well, while Douggg is incorrect on Matthew 24:15-22, the verses do talk about a global event WITH THE CHURCH, which God sees as spiritual Judea. You just got wrong Judea, wrong Jerusalem, wrong people, wrong congregation, wrong temple, wrong stones and of course wrong timing. My previous post bears on this.

Jesus said those in Judea would need to flee, not those throughout the world.

We MUST search and study all of the scriptures in order to rightly divide or determine what God is saying. What Judaea, what Woman, What Jerusalem. The keyword is "RIGHTLY" determining what God is really saying.

2nd Timothy 2:15
  • "Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth."
...it's not just a line, it's the Only way of rightly dividing or proportioning the word of God correctly! Jerusalem is spiritually the woman. Judaea is spiritually the holy place of God's people. The corporate assembly which is the court which is without the temple, Revelation 11:2.

The context of verse 22 is in relation to Judea, not the entire earth. You are changing the text to fit your doctrine.

Incorrect. The Judea represents the holy place of God's people on this side of the Cross ,which is the Church. And the church is all over the world. It is the housetops the Lord talked about! God did not talk about a piece of land or housetop in the Middle East. What housetops? Is it barn? Is is a buildings of the Jews? Or any house we may live in? The ONLY way to really know what God is talking about is to allow scripture to interpret scripture. As complicated as you might think it is, it is the only way!

Matthew 10:27
  • "What I tell you in darkness, that speak ye in light: and what ye hear in the ear, that preach ye upon the housetops."
Luke 12:3
  • "Therefore whatsoever ye have spoken in darkness shall be heard in the light; and that which ye have spoken in the ear in closets shall be proclaimed upon the housetops."
The housetops signify the pulpit, the place on high where one preaches. A podium or Dais, which is a raised platform from which to speak. Nothing to do with panicked Jews coming down from the roofs to get things out of their home to flee the Romans as you think!
 
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Ronald Nolette

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I don't agree with this all.

The wrath of God is one year.

The Day of the Lord is when we come with the armies of heaven. The Lord will speak the Word and there will be sudden destruction.

There is a 7 year period that begins when a covenant with many is confirmed. However, there is only 3.5 years left in the 70th week of Daniel.

From the decree to rebuild Jerusalem unto Messiah the prince is 69 weeks. Messiah is cut off 3.5 years after His arrival as Messiah. That leaves 3.5 years.

Daniel 12
6 And one said to the man clothed in linen, which was upon the waters of the river, How long shall it be to the end of these wonders?
7 And I heard the man clothed in linen, which was upon the waters of the river, when he held up his right hand and his left hand unto heaven, and sware by him that liveth for ever that it shall be for a time, times, and an half; and when he shall have accomplished to scatter the power of the holy people, all these things shall be finished.
YOu have mistranslated Daniel.

24 Seventy weeks are determined upon thy people and upon thy holy city, to finish the transgression, and to make an end of sins, and to make reconciliation for iniquity, and to bring in everlasting righteousness, and to seal up the vision and prophecy, and to anoint the most Holy.

25 Know therefore and understand, that from the going forth of the commandment to restore and to build Jerusalem unto the Messiah the Prince shall be seven weeks, and threescore and two weeks: the street shall be built again, and the wall, even in troublous times.

26 And after threescore and two weeks shall Messiah be cut off, but not for himself: and the people of the prince that shall come shall destroy the city and the sanctuary; and the end thereof shall be with a flood, and unto the end of the war desolations are determined.

27 And he shall confirm the covenant with many for one week: and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease, and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate.

Jesus is cut off after 69 weeks or 483 years. that can be traced with specificity from history.

Then we have a prince of the people who destroy Jerusalem ( a Roman ruler)

In verse 27 we have "he" making a covenant with the many for one seven.

The he3 must refer back to its nearest antecedent that matches in gender and number. That means it is the prince of the people ( the antichrist.

It is he who breaks the covenant in mid 70th week. ends the sacrifices in the temple, and as Paul states in Thessalonians become the abomination by sitting on the mercy seat declaring himself God, as Jesus said in Matt. 24. and desecrates the temple (making it desolate)

Once again the REeturn of Jesus is not the day of the Lord! It is His return with brightness and glory and not blackness and blood red moon. He makes war with the armies of the antichrist. not pour out all sorts of wrath.
 

Spiritual Israelite

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21 For then shall be great tribulation, such as was not since the beginning of the world to this time, no, nor ever shall be.

22 And except those days should be shortened, there should no flesh be saved: but for the elect's sake those days shall be shortened.

Considering in verse 21, the great tribulation will be unmatched in the history of the world, nor ever matched afterward, the entire world is impacted to the extent no flesh should survive it - unless it is shortened before reaching that point.
You are again changing the text to fit your doctrine. It does not say it "will be umatched in the history of the world". It is saying it would be unlike any other great tribulation. How could any future great tribulation match the flood in Noah's day when all but 8 people were killed? There's no way in the world that the context of what Jesus was saying that there would be an event in the future that would be more destructive on a scale unmatched in history. That would not make any sense. Unless you think a future great tribulation will kill all but less than 8 people in the world?

No, Jesus was talking about something that would be unlike any other tribulation that occurred anywhere in the world and what happened in Judea and Jerusalem around 70 AD was unlike any other tribulation in the world before or since. No other city was completely destroyed like that with the religion of its people being affected in that way and its temple buildings being destroyed and its people being taken captive to all nations and so on. It was a time of tribulation unlike any other in the history of the world.

You have to change the text to make it into a global tribulation. Jesus said those in Judea would need to flee, not anyone else. If you are comfortable with changing the text to make it fit your doctrine, then that says a lot about you.

How could it make any sense for people in Judea to flee to the mountains in the future? In this day and age, there's nowhere for anyone to hide. And why, in this day and age of advanced technology and travel, would fleeing be a problem for pregnant women and nursing mothers? Why would it be a problem to flee in the winter?

To recap your view, you think that both Luke 21:20-24 and Matthew 24:15-22 are the 70 AD event ?
Yes, of course. That's very obviously the case. He did not twice say "when you see" something that would indicate impending desolation in Jerusalem that those in Judea would need to flee to the mountains twice in the Olivet Discourse. And He did not say it would be particularly difficult for pregnant women and nursing mothers twice. And He didn't say there would be great distress/tribulation at a time when those in Judea had to flee twice. It's ridiculous to believe that.

Since you think the two passages are not parallel do me a favor and show me exactly when you think He said what is recorded in Luke 21:20-24 compared to when He said what is recorded in Matthew 24:15-22. Which do you think He said first and how long after do you think He said the other?
 

TribulationSigns

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You make simple things complicated and that's entirely your own fault. You imagine yourself to have more spiritual discernment than everyone else because of spiritualizing almost everything. Having spiritual discernment means being able to discern the difference between text that speaks of literal, physical things and text that is speaking of spiritual things. You are not very good at that.

Blah blah blah blah blah.
I have refuted your claims many times before, so don't tell me I can't refute your nonsense.

No, it's true—you absolutely have not refute my position. And why? Because you clearly lack any real spiritual understanding of what Judea, the housetop, the woman, or the ‘sucklings’ actually mean. You’re stuck on the surface while the meaning is miles deeper. But sure, keep pretending you’ve got it all figured out.
It's very clear that the disciples were talking about the physical temple buildings standing at that time and Jesus said they would be destroyed.

Once again—again and again—you completely missed the point. Just like the disciples staring at the physical stones, thinking that’s what Jesus meant. Seriously? No. He wasn't giving a tour of architecture. How many times do I have to say it?

Then the first question they asked Him in the Olivet Discourse is when the temple buildings would be destroyed and He answered that question. The answer can be found in Matthew 24:15-22, Mark 13:14-20 and Luke 21:20-24. Jerusalem and the temple buildings were destroyed in 70 AD, fulfilling Daniel 9:26-27 and fulfilling what Jesus prophesied in the Olivet Discourse as well as His prophecy about the destruction of Jerusalem in Luke 19:41-44.

I literally just explained your misunderstanding—but apparently, comprehension isn’t your strong suit.
I've done that many times. I suggest you try it (James 1:5-7).

Well, look at you—just out there swimming in the wild waves of the sea of "partial" preterism. Don’t forget what James 1:5–7 says about the double-minded, tossed like a wave. Might want to grab a lifeboat of wisdom while you still can.
 
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Spiritual Israelite

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Blah blah blah blah blah.


No, it's true—you absolutely have not refute my position. And why? Because you clearly lack any real spiritual understanding of what Judea, the housetop, the woman, or the ‘sucklings’ actually mean. You’re stuck on the surface while the meaning is miles deeper. But sure, keep pretending you’ve got it all figured out.


Once again—again and again—you completely missed the point. Just like the disciples staring at the physical stones, thinking that’s what Jesus meant. Seriously? No. He wasn't giving a tour of architecture. How many times do I have to say it?



I literally just explained your misunderstanding—but apparently, comprehension isn’t your strong suit.


Well, look at you—just out there swimming in the wild waves of the sea of "partial" preterism. Don’t forget what James 1:5–7 says about the double-minded, tossed like a wave. Might want to grab a lifeboat of wisdom while you still can.
Nothing but rambling gibberish from you. You like to make things so complicated that only you can understand. The truth doesn't work that way. You might as well just say "Hey everyone, look how spiritual I am with the way I spiritualize the entire Bible! Aren't I the most spiritual person you've ever seen"? LOL. What a joke.
 
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TribulationSigns

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No, it isn't. Your denial that Jesus said anything at all about the temple buildings being destroyed despite the fact that Him making that claim is what spawned the Olivet Discourse in the first place is nothing more than a joke.

I never denied what Christ said about the temple—don’t twist it. The real difference here is that I actually understand what He was talking about. And spoiler alert: it’s not what you think it is. It’s painfully clear you haven’t been enlightened—or maybe never will be if you keep clinging to the dead weight of partial preterism. But hey, stubbornness is a doctrine too, right?
 

Douggg

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No, they asked two questions. They only asked about one sign of His coming and the end of the age/world.
The disciples did not ask about the end of the age. Age is not in the text. So let's remove the age/ , and stick to the end of the world.

So what was the basis for their thinking that the world would end ?

I did a phrase search for "end of the world". And here are the results.

 

TribulationSigns

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That has nothing to do with the Olivet Discourse. Why can't you get it through our head that John 2:18-21 has nothing to do with the Olivet Discourse? It has a completely different context.

You seriously don’t see the connection between John 2:18–21 and the Olivet Discourse? That’s a massive oversight.


In John 2, Jesus clearly refers to His body as the temple:

“Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up.” (John 2:19)

And just so there’s no confusion, verse 21 spells it out:

“But He was speaking of the temple of His body.”

Now in the Olivet Discourse (Matthew 24, Mark 13, Luke 21), the disciples are marveling at the physical stones of the temple buildings, and Jesus responds by saying:

“There shall not be left here one stone upon another, that shall not be thrown down.”

And here’s the part you’re missing: Jesus wasn't just predicting the destruction of a physical building—He was declaring the end of the old covenant congregation with JEWS as the stones - the builders of that temple, Matthew 21:42.

That entire temple structure, priesthood, and sacrificial system was pointing to CHRIST the whole time. When He said “Destroy THIS temple,” He was prophesying both His death and the kingdom being taken from the Jews.

So yes—they are absolutely connected.

The first verses of the Olivet Discourse are about the judgment coming upon Old Testament congregation with stones (people) falling, signifying the end of their kingdom representative. And John 2? It reveals the deeper truth: Christ Himself is the true temple (for both Old and New Testament). Once His body, making up of his congregation, was “destroyed” and raised again, there was no more need for a physical temple made of stone. That’s why He wept over Jerusalem. That’s why the veil tore.

Denying this connection is to cling to the shadows while the substance has already come. :p
 

TribulationSigns

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Nothing but rambling gibberish from you. You like to make things so complicated that only you can understand. The truth doesn't work that way. You might as well just say "Hey everyone, look how spiritual I am with the way I spiritualize the entire Bible! Aren't I the most spiritual person you've ever seen"? LOL. What a joke.

Entire Bible? LOL!
 

Spiritual Israelite

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It still does not mean Luke was not writing for the benefit of the Jewish believers in the diaspora as well as for the Gentile converts. His letter was passed from church to church, else it would not have ended up in the Canon. He wasn't "only" writing for the person he addressed the letter to, as your assertion implies. Nor is there any evidence at all that Luke was paraphrasing anything, as you falsely asserted.
Do me a favor. Since you think He said what is recorded in Luke 21:20-24 separately from what is recorded in Matthew 24:15-22, put your money where your mouth is for once and combine Matthew 24 and Luke 21 together to show me when you think Jesus said what is recorded in Matthew 24:15-22 in relation to what is recorded in Luke 21:20-24. Which do you think He said first and how much later did He say the other? I'd like to see exactly what you think He said in the Olivet Discourse.

You seem to think that there is no paraphrasing by Luke at all in Luke 21:20-24. So, let's look at these verses...

Matthew 24:3 And as he sat upon the mount of Olives, the disciples came unto him privately, saying, Tell us, when shall these things be? and what shall be the sign of thy coming, and of the end of the world?

Luke 21:7 And they asked him, saying, Master, but when shall these things be? and what sign will there be when these things shall come to pass?

Using the type of reasoning you use to conclude that Matthew 24:15 and Luke 21:20 can't be parallel verses, I would assume you would also conclude that the above verses can't be parallel since the second question in Matthew 24:3 is worded much differently than the second question in Luke 21:7? Or do you think the verses are parallel to each other, which would mean that either Matthew or Luke was paraphrasing the second question? Since what Luke wrote is very similar to what Mark wrote in Mark 13:4, I would assume that Matthew paraphrased the question. Would you agree? If so, why would you believe that Matthew paraphrased something Jesus said, but at the same time think that Luke couldn't have done that?



Another weak and beggarly argument that's offered as 'evidence' that Luke 21:20-24 and Matthew 24:15-22 are parallel passages. It shows how the mind can convince the person that something is evidence of a falsehood he has faith in, like someone firmly believing that a photo of a frisbee is a photo of a flying saucer.

Jesus was talking to his Jewish disciples about an abomination of desolation in the holy place spoken of by Daniel the prophet in Matthew 24:15 and they would NOT have identified that with the destruction of the city.
If they were aware of Daniel 9:26-27 then they definitely would have identified that with the destruction of the city.

The opposite is the case:

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"'Abomination of Desolation' is a phrase from the Book of Daniel describing the pagan sacrifices with which the 2nd century BC Greek king Antiochus IV Epiphanes replaced the twice-daily offering in the Jewish temple, or alternatively the altar on which such offerings were made."
(Abomination of desolation - Wikipedia)
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It was not associated with the destruction of either the city or the temple, because as Jesus' audience well knew, the temple was cleansed afterward and the daily sacrifices were renewed, and the city was not destroyed at the time either. The celebration based on the history (hannukah) was celebrated even by Jesus.

The words abomination of desolation in the holy place spoken of by Daniel the prophet had nothing to do with the abominations (plural) spoken about in Daniel 9:26-27 which are associated with the destruction of both the city and the temple by the text in Daniel 9:26-27.
The Hebrew word can be singular or plural. Some translations have abomination (singular) in Daniel 9:27. Since the Olivet Discourse clearly relates partly to the destruction of the temple, it's obvious to me that Jesus was referring to Daniel 9:26-27 in Matthew 24:15 (Mark 13:14) when He referred to the prophecy in Daniel.

But the words ""But when you see Jerusalem surrounded by armies, then know that its desolation has come near." they would have understood immediately to be talking about what the words say.

Imagine how confused the disciples would have been if He had been talking about an abomination of desolation in the holy place and the destruction of the city in the same breath.​
They would not have been confused by that at all since He had just told them the temple would be destroyed and not long before that He told them the city would be destroyed (Luke 19:41-44) and He told them to refer to the prophecy in Daniel. The one that fits the context is clearly Daniel 9:26-27. You are denying the obvious here.

And this is why you have NO CLUE as to why Matthew 24:15 uses the word "Therefore" to link what is being said in verses 15-22 with the tribulation of the disciples that was being spoken about in Matthew 24:9-14, and so you just flatly ignore that word too.
I've shown multiple times how the Greek word "oun", translated as "therefore" in Matthew 24:15, can be used to refer back to something prior to the previous verse. Here is one example of that...

Ephesians 4:1 I therefore, the prisoner of the Lord, beseech you that ye walk worthy of the vocation wherewith ye are called,

In this verse Paul is not referring back to what he had just been saying up to the end of Ephesians 3, but rather was referring back to what he had been saying up until Ephesians 3:13 before he made a prayer for the Ephesians in Ephesians 3:14-21.

So, I believe, in Matthew 24:15, Jesus was referring back to the question related to the destruction of the temple buildings in verse 3.

And so in your ignorance of scripture you conclude that because the words “Then let those who are in Judea flee to the mountains. But woe to those who are pregnant and to those who are nursing babies in those days!" are the same in both passages, Jesus is talking about the same thing in both passages.
LOL! Show me the text of the Olivet Discourse, as you understand it, so I can see exactly when you think He said those things at two different times and let's see if what you show makes any sense or not. Put your money where your mouth is for once. You are the one claiming thse passages aren't parallel, so prove it. Show me how He could have said those things separately in a way that would make sense and in way that wouldn't be completely confusing to those listening to Him and those reading His words.

It's useless trying to get you to see how you're looking at yourself in a mirror when you speak like you do above because your mouth is always open hurling out the insults you always begin with, and so your ears are always shut.
You are a hypocrite. I tried getting along with you and we actually were getting along for awhile, but then you decided to go back to your normal insulting ways. So, stop whining about how I'm talking when you are doing the exact same thing.

With you it's like "Mirror, mirror on the wall. Whose argument is the weakest and lamest of them all"?, and "Mirror, mirror on the wall, whose argument is the best and strongest of them all?"

It's all so ridiculous and incredibly childish. Yet you can't stop.
Says the person making ridiculous and incredibly childish comments who can't stop doing so.
 

Spiritual Israelite

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You seriously don’t see the connection between John 2:18–21 and the Olivet Discourse? That’s a massive oversight.
Hello? Do you think I was just making that up? Am I coming across as if I'm not being serious? The Olivet Discourse is not recorded in the book of John. Just before the Olivet Discourse the disciples were talking about the temple buildings (plural) standing at that time and Jesus told them they would be destroyed. And His prophecy came true. Very simple. But, leave it up to you to turn something simple into something convoluted because that's what you do. In no way, shape or form did Jesus refer to His body in Matthew 24:1-2 (Mark 13:1-2, Luke 21:6-7) or in the Olivet Discourse.
 

Spiritual Israelite

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Well, while Douggg is incorrect on Matthew 24:15-22, the verses do talk about a global event WITH THE CHURCH, which God sees as spiritual Judea. You just got wrong Judea, wrong Jerusalem, wrong people, wrong congregation, wrong temple, wrong stones and of course wrong timing. My previous post bears on this.



We MUST search and study all of the scriptures in order to rightly divide or determine what God is saying. What Judaea, what Woman, What Jerusalem. The keyword is "RIGHTLY" determining what God is really saying.

2nd Timothy 2:15
  • "Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth."
...it's not just a line, it's the Only way of rightly dividing or proportioning the word of God correctly! Jerusalem is spiritually the woman. Judaea is spiritually the holy place of God's people. The corporate assembly which is the court which is without the temple, Revelation 11:2.



Incorrect. The Judea represents the holy place of God's people on this side of the Cross ,which is the Church. And the church is all over the world. It is the housetops the Lord talked about! God did not talk about a piece of land or housetop in the Middle East. What housetops? Is it barn? Is is a buildings of the Jews? Or any house we may live in? The ONLY way to really know what God is talking about is to allow scripture to interpret scripture. As complicated as you might think it is, it is the only way!

Matthew 10:27
  • "What I tell you in darkness, that speak ye in light: and what ye hear in the ear, that preach ye upon the housetops."
Luke 12:3
  • "Therefore whatsoever ye have spoken in darkness shall be heard in the light; and that which ye have spoken in the ear in closets shall be proclaimed upon the housetops."
The housetops signify the pulpit, the place on high where one preaches. A podium or Dais, which is a raised platform from which to speak. Nothing to do with panicked Jews coming down from the roofs to get things out of their home to flee the Romans as you think!
Translation: "Look how I'm able to spiritualize every word in the Olivet Discourse! Isn't that impressive?!". This is getting very boring. I feel sorry for people like you that make things more difficult than they should be.
 

Spiritual Israelite

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The disciples did not ask about the end of the age. Age is not in the text. So let's remove the age/ , and stick to the end of the world.
Douggg, stop being so ignorant and stop trying to tell me what to do. There is no excuse for your ignorance. Do you never look at the Greek words that the English words are translated from? The word "world" there is translated from the Greek word "aion" and is translated as "age" in other translations. That is a perfectly viable translation of the word "aion" because it is a word used to refer to time. I like that translation better so that people don't confuse it with the Greek word "kosmos" which refers to the world we live in.

Also, why did you not respond to what I said about how many questions the disciples asked? Why are only 2 questions recorded in the Mark 13 and Luke 21 accounts if they asked 3 questions?
 
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